I dont think any view is free from problems, meaning they got some 'splaining to do
I agree with you that all eschatological positions have some "
splaining to do". They all seem to have some issues.
What I mean when I say amill fits Scripture best is that I don't see its "problem passages" as refuting it. It's unclear what those few "problem passages" are actually saying. Everything else in Scripture fits amill very nicely.
With premill, postmill or preterist views I see many Scriptures that outright refute any possibility of them being true.
Amil no exception, how do you explain the saints RULING over the nations, if there are no nations?
The amill believes saints are ruling right now in heaven with Christ.
Rev 3: 21, "To him who overcomes I will grant to sit with Me on My throne, as I also overcame and sat down with My Father on His throne." Notice Jesus talks about His sitting on the throne of His Father in the present tense. Sitting on a throne means you are ruling and reigning.
How do you explain satan being bound currently
John 12: 31, "Now is the judgment of this world; now the ruler of this world will be cast out." Amill's believe that is the binding of Satan and he was cast out/into the abyss. This is why he said he saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.
Jesus won the victory on the cross and the gospel can now go to the Gentiles. The great commission is that binding. He can't keep them in darkness anymore. That word for deceiving the "nations" means gentiles in the Greek. That's the only thing he is bound from doing. Gentiles can now be saved. Gentiles in the Old Testament had no access to God generally speaking. Only Israel had the light.
first resurrection being spiritual and second literal while the word literally means to stand up again to be resurrected
The word ezesan does refer to physical resurrection in other Scriptures. The question is does it mean physical resurrection in Rev 20? The amill believes it is a spiritual resurrection where they live on and rule and reign with Christ for 1,000 years. Thrones are mentioned. No reign on earth or from Jerusalem is ever mentioned in Rev 20.
Jesus ruling in Jerusalem OVER the nations with a rod of iron
I'm guessing you are referring to Rev 19: 15 which says, "Now out of His mouth goes a sharp sword, that with it He should strike the nations. And He Himself will rule them with a rod of iron. He Himself treads the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God."
Notice the context of "ruling" them. Jesus treads "the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God". This is the second coming. It also says a "sharp sword goes out of His mouth that He strikes the nations with".
What happens when Jesus returns? Go down 6 more verses to Rev 19: 21, "And the rest were killed with the sword which proceeded from the mouth of Him who sat on the horse." There is your "ruling with a rod of iron" and also the "dashing in pieces" of Psalm 2. It happens at His return. Not in a millennium.
the millennium not being a literal 1000 altho there is no reason in the text to spiritualizing it,
Except there is plenty of reason. Psalm 50: 10, "For every beast of the forest is Mine,
and the cattle on a thousand hills." God doesn't own the cattle on the 1,001st hill?
Psalm 90: 4, "For a
thousand years in Your sight are
like yesterday when it is past, and like a
watch in the night. Can't be both 24 hours and 3 hours. Can only be symbolic.
I can give you a ton of Scripture examples that show 1,000 used as a number for
"fullness" and not literal. But premills want to take 1,000 literally in the most symbolic book in the Bible. Seems crazy to me.
As a premill you probably won't accept these interpretations and that's fine but I can give verses that prove that a 1,000 year reign of Christ on earth is impossible.