just for example...
what I actually wrote, that dude is actually quoting, is that sin was in the world long before the Law ((in context of my original post, neatly not quoted so no one can find it and see what was being discussed, clearly with reference to the law of Moses)). I explicitly said that.
hyperbolicly I asked how Satan could be said to have sinned while Moses was still a baby, if sin didn't exist until Sinai?
what dude reads from this is that I said no one knew sin until Moses gave the law, and that Satan didn't even sin until then.
dude.
that is exactly the absurdity that I was pointing out about dudes own position that without the law sin doesn't exist.
it is exactly the opposite of what I said about sin!
perhaps I was wrong to say he is a slanderer?
no - he still slanders. he just spent a long time slandering me. when he is supposed to be studying the Bible he's instead directly attacking a person.
but perhaps he has no idea he is being slanderous because he is so woefully lacking in understanding?
if so my apologies dude. I have been assuming all this time you were a moderately intelligent person.
I'm not attacking you Post, I am exposing scriptural flaws in the preaching you further.
"It is false to say there is no sin without the law. The law came long after sin entered the world. What scripture says is the law brings knowledge of sin, and that without it there is no transgression of it - not that there's no sin without it. How did Satan sin before Moses was even placed in the river, in a basket?"
God's Laws that the entire Law and Prophets hang on were given to His people in the beginning as it is written. But His people forgot them in the World.
23 And it came to pass in process of time, that the king of Egypt died: and the children of Israel sighed by reason of the bondage, and they cried, and their cry came up unto God by reason of the bondage.
24 And God heard their groaning,
and God remembered his covenant with Abraham, with Isaac, and with Jacob.
5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
God gave them again, His Commandments and His Laws He gave to Abraham, but ADDED to His Covenant with Abraham another "law" which entailed for the Levites specific sacrificial "works of the Law" for the remission of sins until the Seed should come. This was the covenant God made with Israel that He promised to change in Jeremiah 31 and other places. Not the Covenant He made with Abraham and Abraham's children.
11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) WHAT LAW? The Priesthood only? Sacrificial works only? Is God only the God of the Jews? Or is He also the God of Abraham who was justified "without Levi".
I hope you will not continue to deflect, refuse to engage, and defend, at all costs, your religion. That is truly the proven custom of religious man through out the Bible. But even if you do, this will have no bearing on the fact that the Law the Jews were pushing was not that which we heard from the beginning, rather, the "LAW of Works" given to the Levites until the seed should come.
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