Things to Consider Before Attempting to Correct the King James Bible

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Nov 23, 2013
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My diagnosis would be: Bible worship.

Or a fancy official title like bibleatry
Bible worship, what is that exactly? Is it someone who recognizes the spirit of Christ in the book and elevates that book above the other versions?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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I would say His translation or interpretation alone is inspired in its original autographs. The mysteries as to the spiritual understanding are made know according to the signified language using parables. Hiding the spiritual unseen. Many of the differences in translations has to do on how we divide or how we hear God. .
Do you think a group of men have the ability to recognize the signified language in the original language and then accurately translate that symbolic language into another language?
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Bible worship, what is that exactly? Is it someone who recognizes the spirit of Christ in the book and elevates that book above the other versions?
When all else fails...Bible worship! Idolatry!
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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What do you base that on how do you KNOW for a fact that God didn’t inspire the translators?
The only infallible word of God is the original language versions in Hebrew, Aramaic, and and koine Judeo Greek. Judeo Greek is like German Yiddish. Jewish concepts are forced into the language modifying it. Only the convoluted way English was created allows Jewish concepts be brought in without modifying the language. Where in the Bible does it state that translations are inspired by God???
 

Endoscopy

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Oct 13, 2017
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Do you think a group of men have the ability to recognize the signified language in the original language and then accurately translate that symbolic language into another language?
It is obvious to the casual observer that you are ignorant of the fact that in the UN and other places people translate on the fly when people of several languages are meeting. You see people wearing headphones listening to their language. So what then is so hard for a group of translators taking more time to make sure they are getting it correct..

Open your eyes and look at all of the people who can speak fluently in multiple languages!!! In other words get your head out of the sand.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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What do you base that on how do you KNOW for a fact that God didn’t inspire the translators?
The errors of translation tip it off quite clearly. I'd explain it, but you won't accept it, so I'll save myself the effort.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Because then that would be considered a private interpretation . Not the original autograph. His interpretation is the interpretation that we can know Him after as the perfect all other are private interpretations or personal commentaries.
I'd agree with you, but that would mean agreeing with your view on "private interpretation" which is demonstrably unbiblical, as I have shown several times.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Do you think a group of men have the ability to recognize the signified language in the original language and then accurately translate that symbolic language into another language?
If your view were true, then the patterns would be evident in other languages and not just English. To be valid and not mere happenstance, they would have to be evident in the original-language manuscripts (which, by the way, are not uniform in wording).

Merely finding patterns in the KJV is NOT sufficient evidence to prove that its translation was inspired. You are free, of course, to believe whatever you like, but asserting things without good evidence only reflects badly on you. So... do your homework, demonstrate that ALL the patterns you find in the KJV are present in Greek or Hebrew as appropriate, and find them ALL in other language translations... a minimum of three in different languages would be appropriate.

Then, demonstrate that they are NOT present in the English versions that preceded the KJV. Good luck, since the KJV borrowed heavily from earlier English versions. Finally, demonstrate that they are not present AT ALL in ANY modern translation.

You will find your quest futile, and your view unsupportable. Even if you did find the patterns in the sources and in other languages, it STILL wouldn't prove inspiration. It might support the idea, but not PROVE it.

And frankly, it's irrelevant to our salvation, sanctification and eternal reward. We aren't saved by a translation, or even a pattern in it, but by the shed blood of Jesus Christ.
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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Sorry it’s just frustrating to hear people bad mouth the KJV when there’s so much about it that you guys don’t understand.
Correction, it is you who ignore the problems of the KJV. I will list them again. Refute them if you can. Somehow I think you will run from it.

Read it and start refuting it.
_________________
Why do you keep using the now flawed KJV translation. The language and understanding of nature has changed over the 400 years since then. There are words that are no longer used. Do you know what a gold ouches is?


KJV Issues
Here is a list of problems with the KJV because of the 400 years of language and science understanding the things of nature.

For example, because of the changes in the English language, a number of words occur in the King James that make zero sense to most people today. These include the following nuggets that you will find scattered here and there:

Almug
Algum
Charashim
Chode
Cracknels
Gat
Habergeon
Hosen
Kab
Ligure
Neesed
Nusings
Ouches
ring-straked
sycamyne
trow
wimples
etc.

The King James translators also translated some animal names into animals that in fact we now have pretty good reason for thinking don’t actually exist:

unicorn (Deut. 33:17)
satyr (Isa 13:21);
dragon (Deut 32:33) (for serpent)
cockatrice (Isa 11:8),
arrowsnake (Gen 49:11, in the margin).

Moreover, there are phrases that simply don’t make sense any more to modern readers:

Phrases that no longer make sense:

ouches of gold (Exod. 28:11);
collops of fat (Job 15:25);
naughty figs (Jer 24:2);
ien with (Jer. 3:2);
the ground is chapt (Jer 14:4);
brazen wall” (Jer 15:20);
rentest thy face (Jer. 4:30);
urrain of the cattle (Exod. 9:2);
(looked up ouches and today we put br in front of it and change the u to o. Brooches.)

And there are whole sentences that are confusing at best, virtually indecipherable (or humorous)

And Jacob sod pottage (Gen 25:29)
And Mt. Sinai was altogether on a smoke (Exoc. 19:18)
Thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing (Ps. 5:6)
I trow not (Luke 17:9)
We do you to wit of the grace of God (2 Cor. 8:1)
Ye are not straitened in us, but ye are straitened in your own bowels (2 Cor. 6:12)
He who letteth will let (2 Thes 2:7)
The words of the wise are as goads, and as nails fastened by the masters of assemblies, which are given from one shepherd (Eccles. 12:11)

Other sentences make sense, but would today be considered somewhat problematic – at least for the sacred Scripture. My favorite is the one that refers to a one who: “Pisseth against the wall:…. 1 Sam 25:22, 34, I Kings 14:10!
(looked this up, it means the person is a man, NIV uses the word man)


KJV Issues sites

https://ehrmanblog.org/problems-with-the-language-of-the-king-james-version/

https://newrepublic.com/article/107222/making-it-new

http://www.bibletexts.com/topics/kjv.htm

http://www.equip.org/article/is-your-modern-translation-corrupt/

http://www.hickoryhammockbaptist.org/kjva1.html

https://www.gotquestions.org/different-gospel.html

The Use and Misuse of the King James Bible: An Interview with Mark Ward
Jonathan Petersen
March 13, 2018

https://www.biblegateway.com/blog/2...pJobID=1362532267&spReportId=MTM2MjUzMjI2NwS2
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
When all else fails...Bible worship! Idolatry!
Ya know whats funny about this?

There is more proof the KJV is people Idol and people worship the book, than there is the KJV is complete without error and the perfect word of God.

In fact. People denying true evidence and making up things or outright ignoring them, just tends to Prove what others are saying..

Instead of trying to defend yourself as not being an idol worshipper. Why don;t you try to defend the accusations which have been levied (something you have yet to do)
 
Nov 23, 2013
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If your view were true, then the patterns would be evident in other languages and not just English. To be valid and not mere happenstance, they would have to be evident in the original-language manuscripts (which, by the way, are not uniform in wording).

Merely finding patterns in the KJV is NOT sufficient evidence to prove that its translation was inspired. You are free, of course, to believe whatever you like, but asserting things without good evidence only reflects badly on you. So... do your homework, demonstrate that ALL the patterns you find in the KJV are present in Greek or Hebrew as appropriate, and find them ALL in other language translations... a minimum of three in different languages would be appropriate.

Then, demonstrate that they are NOT present in the English versions that preceded the KJV. Good luck, since the KJV borrowed heavily from earlier English versions. Finally, demonstrate that they are not present AT ALL in ANY modern translation.

You will find your quest futile, and your view unsupportable. Even if you did find the patterns in the sources and in other languages, it STILL wouldn't prove inspiration. It might support the idea, but not PROVE it.

And frankly, it's irrelevant to our salvation, sanctification and eternal reward. We aren't saved by a translation, or even a pattern in it, but by the shed blood of Jesus Christ.
I don't know if God put number patterns in other bibles, what does it matter if he did? I'm not saying it's a requirement to prove inspiration, I'm saying that if it is there it's proof of inspiration. The patterns are there an it's not possible that those translators made it happen on their own.

I mean come on, why they spell Nebuchadnezzar this way some of the time and this way Nebuchadrezzar at other times. Why translate Holy Ghost sometimes and Holy Spirit other times? And why the heck call Isiah Esias?

Something or someone drove them to pick the words they used.
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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I don't know if God put number patterns in other bibles, what does it matter if he did? I'm not saying it's a requirement to prove inspiration, I'm saying that if it is there it's proof of inspiration. The patterns are there an it's not possible that those translators made it happen on their own.

I mean come on, why they spell Nebuchadnezzar this way some of the time and this way Nebuchadrezzar at other times. Why translate Holy Ghost sometimes and Holy Spirit other times? And why the heck call Isiah Esias?

Something or someone drove them to pick the words they used.
I have 3 books on codes in the Bible. They are found in the original language only. A code starts with a specific letter and a sequence of letters seperate by a fixed number going forwards or backwards will spell out a message. They were discovered by some rabbis looking at the begining of the Torah books. 4 had the same word and the fourth a different word. Some people found other ones then the MIT equivalent in Israel had some students create a program to search out them. They found the names with birth and death dates of recently deceased people. Also listed was the current Prime Minister and the Israel equivalent of our Secret Service stepped up their protection detail on that date and caught a person in the act of attempted assassination.

In 2 messianic sections the name of Jesus with it is he plus the list of the disciples with the one replacing Judas was found.

This proves the awsomme ability of God knowing the end from the beginning.
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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KJV1611
Where is your refutation of the issues with KJV?
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
Y'all still blathering on about who's Bible is best?
Mine is best!

I have seen some fairly alarming claims in this thread.
Calling the work of the Holy Spirit evil is a serious offence. I would be very careful not to cross that line.

you need to show up more often

otherwise, you are like an unexpected speed bump in the road

no idea what you are talking about
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
The reason English has all of the contradictory rules with exceptions, exceptions to the exceptions, etc. is in Britain there were the Celts. Along came Rome and Latin was added to the Celtish language. The Saxons then invaded with German added to mix. Last the Angles invaded bringing French. Thus the mixture ended up becoming present day English over the centuries. Liturature from Choucer through Shakespeare down to today you can see this transition. Try reading Choucer in its original form. Almost indecipherable.

yes I know

English (well maybe not quite every single detail you have listed there but the gist of it)

talk about a mashup..who are the angles though? :unsure:

 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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yes I know

English (well maybe not quite every single detail you have listed there but the gist of it)

talk about a mashup..who are the angles though? :unsure:

Angles today are the French. The Saxons are from Germany. Place names of today not back then.
 

Endoscopy

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Oct 13, 2017
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To understand the last conquering better read Ivanhoe. It details the hatred the conquered Saxons felt towards the conquering Angles. This created the Anglo Saxon Britain.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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I don't know if God put number patterns in other bibles, what does it matter if he did? I'm not saying it's a requirement to prove inspiration, I'm saying that if it is there it's proof of inspiration. The patterns are there an it's not possible that those translators made it happen on their own.

I mean come on, why they spell Nebuchadnezzar this way some of the time and this way Nebuchadrezzar at other times. Why translate Holy Ghost sometimes and Holy Spirit other times? And why the heck call Isiah Esias?

Something or someone drove them to pick the words they used.
All this proves is that there are patterns (maybe). It doesn't prove inspiration. You assume that it proves inspiration, but you have nothing more than your low view of human intellect supporting that view.

Your lack of knowledge regarding other languages is a key factor. If you think the patterns exist by God's handiwork, fine. If you think they exist only in the KJV and not in the source material, you're a fool. If the source material is not inspired, the translation certainly isn't. Frankly, I think you are applying the wrong test for inspiration.