Maybe after the 2nd Advent of the Rupture and the 3rd Advent at the 2nd Advent, there'll be a 4th Advent at a 3rd Advent and then a 5th Advent at a 4th ad infinitum. Once we add one Advent, why stop?! Think BIG!
Come on 'Bigshot', seeing how you are likeminded with 'Zone', I'll throw this at you and perhaps get an objective response without being too sarcastic. Do you believe as 'Zone' does that Satan was bound at the ascension of Christ and is still bound presently according to the meaning of (Rev 20:1-3). Zone has the binding of Satan at the ascension of Christ, when according to the scriptures Satan is bound after the second coming in (Rev 19), can you explan why and how Zone has been able to do that? If you believe as she does, let me ask you the following...
1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, (
which is a prison in verse 7 ) that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season. Satan is 'shut up' meaning no one can enter in of leave because Satan is barred and is 'sealed' meaning a fixed position that can not be broken until the end of the 1,000 yrs. He has no ability to exercise any of his powers, devices or practices upon mankind.
*If Satan was bound by an angel at the time of the ascension, cast into the bottomless pit, shut up and has set a seal upon him for 1,000 yrs, why does the scriptures speak of Satan being active in the NT after the ascension?
In (Acts 5:3) Satan filled the heart of Ananias to lie to the Holy Spirit.
In (Acts 26:18) Paul was sent to turn the Gentiles from the power of Satan unto God.
In (1Cor 5:5) Paul write to the believers at Corinth to deliver such a one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh. If Satan was bound tis could not happen.
In (1Cor 7:5) Paul communicated with married couples not to defraud one another, less Satan tempt them
In (2Cor 2:11) the believers were to forgive and confirm their love for that one who had sinned lest Satan should get an advantage.
In (2Cor 11:14) Satan is transformed into an angel of light. The verb 'is transformed' is in the
present/middle/indicative, which means that as a matter and statement of fact (
indicative mood)Satan has at the present time (
present tense) has initiated the action of transforming himself (
middle voice) into an angel of light.
In (2Cor 12:7) a messenger of Satan was sent to Paul to buffet him.
In (1Thes 2:18) Satan hindered Paul from coming unto the Thessalonian believers.
In (1Tim 1:20) Paul delivered Hymenaeus and Alexander unto Satan so that they would learn not to blaspheme.
*What about the synagogue of Satan that is made up of those that say they are Jews but are not (Rev 2:9)? Is not this synagogue the place that Satan dwelleth (Rev 2:13). The verb 'dwelleth' is also a
present/active/indicative. This letter and revelation was to be written to the angel of the church at Smyrna (Rev 2:8), a NT church after the ascension and before the resurrection of the saints.
* Are you going to tell me that the use of the word 'Satan' in these passages is not a literal one but figurative or symbolic in describing the power and kingdom of darkness? How can the kingdom of darkness function without its head Satan?
*Are you going to deny these scriptures
(and there are many more because there are four names or titles ascribed to him in Rev 20:2) that place Satan as an unbound and active participant in the ongoings of the NT church that God even uses from time to time for His own purposes?