The absurdity and heresy of Preterism

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cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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We were talking about the book of Revelation, not Zech. The book of Revelation is talking about the wrath of God being poured out in my view on Harlot Israel for killing the prophets. And it actually says that they refused to repent even after the plagues. Do you want the reference for that?
If you don't think Zechariah is referenced the book of Revelation, you are gravely mistaken, and speaks to your profound ignorance. Furthermore there is no reference to "Harlot Israel" in book of Revelation either. Simply outrageous.
 
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The "valuable information" you are seeking [and inadvertently INSERTING INTO this verse] is found in other verses but not in THIS verse (1:1).
If the book is for people living 2000 years later, what valuable info does it have?
Please be specific.
That is why I keep pointing out (over and over) the OTHER wording in this verse (1:1) that CONNECTS with those OTHER VERSES which *DO* speak of the "when" (which you are seeking and inadvertently INSERTING here).
When is “soon or near or immediately after the warnings” to the churches? When do you think the when is?
And those other verses are (what I'd pointed out, repeatedly):

--1:19c "the things SURE [mellei/mello] to take place AFTER THESE [things]" (meaning, AFTER the 1:19b "things WHICH ARE" i.e. the NOW things); and
How does that given a time point since those churches don’t exist? In my view it happened after that it in yours I see no specific time point.
--4:1 "... and I will SHEW you the things which MUST take place AFTER THESE [things--i.e. after the things he had just written about in 2 whole chpts, chpts 2-3]"
To churches that aren’t there now and cannot respond.
It is not referring to the things written about toward the END of the Book (as you suggested in a different post)... but the things which are shown to him from 4:1 and following! [<--THIS is the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time period being spoken of and SHOWN to him
“Quick” is not a time period. And I never suggested anything like the end happens before the middle.
Again (for the readers), those are ADVERBS, but the word in 1:1 is a NOUN.
So? The time is near is not an adverb.
And it is speaking of the time period that 4:1+ is speaking of, which is "AFTER THESE [things]" which were written in chpts 2-3 ("the things WHICH ARE" which is DISTINCT)
Since that supposedly describes a rapid matter that even in the description takes 2.5 years which is not at all rapid, of what value is that? If Jesus comes slowly or speedy what does it matter?

Happening soon is information. Happens quickly tells one nothing useful.
 
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If you interpret what Jesus said in the parable of the fig tree, Israel had one year after the cross, to bear fruit.

That one year was roughly the time Stephen was stoned to death in acts 7
They had until 70 AD latest.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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Not really cross, this ties directly into Preterism.
So your point is the prophecies concerning our glorified bodies haven’t happened yet and therefore full preterism is false?
 
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So your point is the prophecies concerning our glorified bodies haven’t happened yet and therefore full preterism is false?
No, I'm saying that the dead in Christ have already been raised and everyone that has died since that time have put on immortality and have gone into heaven in their glorified bodies. Christians don't die.

So the relevancy to this thread is that there IS NO absurdity and heresy of Preterism. The absurdity and heresy lies within dispensationalism.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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It's a shame when people use a single verse to create a Doctrine over.

From the same Romans 11:

21 For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee.
^
Warning to the Gentiles

28 As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.
^
Proves the Jews are still AOK in God's eyes!
The Jews rejected their Messiah the first time around per prophecy but that was part of Gods overarching and immaculate plan for the ages. But the Scripture is resoundingly and profoundly clear that they will be giving given a second opportunity that they will NOT miss! And again this fulfills all prophecy. These prophecies are perfectly clear I really cannot fathom all of this misunderstanding from the preterists and amillennialist. Other than my diagnosis that they do not have indwelt the Holy Spirit. Because nobody is that dumb......it is judicial blindness in my opinion.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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No, I'm saying that the dead in Christ have already been raised and everyone that has died since that time have put on immortality and have gone into heaven in their glorified bodies. Christians don't die.

So the relevancy to this thread is that there IS NO absurdity and heresy of Preterism. The absurdity and heresy lies within dispensationalism.
I'll have to come back later today (gotta get some work done), but I think I've posted things with you about this... see if this jogs something:

--"caught up TOGETHER with them" where the "together" word is attached to the verb "caught up" (meaning, [caught up together] AT THE SAME TIME);

--2Cor5:1-8, where "unclothed" refers to "being without a body for a time, upon DEATH [of the believer]" [which Paul says he is "WILLING" for, if God so wills it],
whereas "clothed upon" [which we are "earnestly DESIRING" (no one "earnestly DESIRES" to DIE first)] refers to "being immediately clothed upon with our glorified body APART from having to DIE first [this happens at the Rapture point in time, for the "we which are ALIVE and remain unto" (2Cor5:2-4; corresponding to the "THIS MORTAL shall put on immortality" of 1Cor15:51-54 [and "the DEAD IN Christ" corresponds with the "THIS CORRUPTIBLE must put on incorruption"]--before we are "caught up TOGETHER" that is, AT THE SAME TIME, or you could say, "AS ONE" the "ONE BODY," i.e. "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY," which is who Paul is addressing and speaking "to/for/about" in these passages)


Hope this begins to address your question... sorry I can't stay... BBL (hopefully) = )
 

crossnote

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Nov 24, 2012
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No, I'm saying that the dead in Christ have already been raised and everyone that has died since that time have put on immortality and have gone into heaven in their glorified bodies. Christians don't die.

So the relevancy to this thread is that there IS NO absurdity and heresy of Preterism. The absurdity and heresy lies within dispensationalism.
You're assuming the resurrection of our bodies happen simultaneously with our souls and that is simply not the case...except at the Parousia (rapture).
 
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I'll have to come back later today (gotta get some work done), but I think I've posted things with you about this... see if this jogs something:
I have the same problem with having to get stuff done. :)
I participate when I can.
--"caught up TOGETHER with them" where the "together" word is attached to the verb "caught up" (meaning, [caught up together] AT THE SAME TIME);
"Caught up together WITH THEM" - the them is the Old Testament saints that were raised with Christ. When the Lord comes into our lives, we become just like them, IN CHRIST and immortal, but not glorified bodies. We get glorified bodies when we pass from this existence to the next.
--2Cor5:1-8, where "unclothed" refers to being without a body for a time, upon DEATH [of the believer], whereas "clothed upon" refers to "being immediately clothed upon with our glorified body APART from having to DIE first [this happens to the Rapture point in time, for the "we which are ALIVE and remain unto" (2Cor5:2-4; corresponding to the "THIS MORTAL shall put on immortality" of 1Cor15:51-54 [and "the DEAD IN Christ" corresponds with the "THIS CORRUPTIBLE must put on incorruption"]--before we are "caught up TOGETHER" that is, AT THE SAME TIME, or you could say, "AS ONE" the "ONE BODY," i.e. "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY," which is who Paul is addressing and speaking "to/for/about" in these passages)


Hope this begins to address your question... sorry I can't stay... BBL (hopefully) = )
Are you saying that we are disembodied spirits while we're in heaven? Why would we not receive the same glorified body that Christ has? Why would we need to wait for it?
 
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You're assuming the resurrection of our bodies happen simultaneously with our souls and that is simply not the case...except at the Parousia (rapture).
Our souls do not die, we move from this existence to heaven. Do you agree?
 
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God does nothing irrationally or unreasonably. Please go through the book of Acts and see that even though Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles, he invariably went to every Jewish synagogue in every city that he visited and FIRST preached the Gospel to the Jews throughout the Roman empire. And generally the Jews resisted the Gospel message. Thus Acts 28 is the culmination of that resistance and brought on spiritual blindness to the nation of Israel.

According to your theory God was deliberately shutting out the Jews from salvation so that the Gentiles would be saved. And that my friend is PATENTLY ABSURD.
And to make matters worse, a certain number of Gentiles need to be saved and then, as my German friends say, schwupp-de-whoop, all the Jews alive will get saved. Bummer for the Jews living and dying condemned until then just because the “quota” isn’t fulfilled though. I feel for them.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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No, I'm saying that the dead in Christ have already been raised and everyone that has died since that time have put on immortality and have gone into heaven in their glorified bodies. Christians don't die.

So the relevancy to this thread is that there IS NO absurdity and heresy of Preterism. The absurdity and heresy lies within dispensationalism.
By all accounts the so-called dispensationalists utterly crushed and annihilated the preterists and the amillennialists on this thread. A humiliating defeat but not all unexpected, but rather quite inevitable. Frankly the quality and quantity of the posts of the so-called dispensationalists and millennialists was amazing and outstanding.
 
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It could have been no more than 5 or 6 years after Pentecost (30 AD). That is not quite a bit later. But even before that Philip had preached the Gospel to the Samaritans (semi-Gentiles) very shortly after Pentecost (Acts 8:5) possibly later in the year of 30 AD.
“Assuming that the prophecy of Agabus was made before Claudius Caesar became Emperor in 41AD, and consequently the latest date for Barnabas to go to Tarsus to get Paul was 40AD, then Peter's vision and his visit to Cornelius could have been at any time between 35 and 40AD. If the assumption regarding Agabus is false, then we have a wider time frame, from 35 to 45AD, but we continue this discussion on the basis that it's true.
Peter's vision was an act of Divine providence, because without it the second generation Believers who began preaching to the Gentiles would have been considered outright heretics. The early Jerusalem Believers never had any thoughts of ministry to the Gentiles, who were totally excluded from the church for at least the first five years until 35AD, and maybe the first ten years until 40AD. After that, the Judaising controversy raged for another 10 or 15 years until it was finally settled in Jerusalem in 50AD. “

This author dates it at no sooner than 5 years and between 5-10 years. That’s considerably later than a few years although “considerably” is vague.
 

crossnote

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Our souls do not die, we move from this existence to heaven. Do you agree?
We move from this existence in spirit/soul but not in the body until the resurrection of our bodies. Only at the rapture does it happen simultaneously.

1 Corinthians 15:51-54 (KJV) Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory.

This appears to happen at the last trump, but according to you the last trump seems to be ongoing...every time a Christian dies.
 

Jimbone

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Aug 22, 2014
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Ironically history proves the gt is future.
The mark
The flying scorpions
Hailstones of fire
The planet destroyed
And on and on.

Historic view is debunked quite easily.
So is the futurist view with the impossibility of this "3rd temple", A WAY bigger roadblock to that view than ignorance of how the Hebrews wrote apocalyptic literature.

To be honest the "3rd temple" is a MUCH bigger problem for your view than your misunderstanding of the literary style of apocalyptic literature in Rev. is for those of us that believe Jesus already brought judgement on the covenant breakers, at the end of that age. But whatever, act as if your view doesn't have HUGE problems you have to ignore or deny, just to hide behind so you don't have to answer how on earth a 3rd temple is even possible, let alone being logical for a system that points to the coming Messiah to be reinstated, AFTER Jesus already came. The whole 3rd temple idea has so many holes and problems it blows my mind how this thing ever became the mainstream view in the US. Baffling. God in the last days spoke to us through Christ, Paul tells us ANYONE that adds to His word is cursed, yet God has not yet commanded His people to build this Temple. See the conundrum here? There is no 3rd temple, it is a made up lie that must be assumed into the text, yet there is no room for "God's 3rd temple" in History, it is finished as a great man once said.

So can you please address your easily debunked futurist view before acting like you even know what you're talking about with ours? Thanks brother.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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We move from this existence in spirit/soul but not in the body until the resurrection of our bodies. Only at the rapture does it happen simultaneously.

1 Corinthians 15:51-54 (KJV) Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory.

This appears to happen at the last trump, but according to you the last trump seems to be ongoing...every time a Christian dies.
What about the Old Testament saints that were resurrected and taken to heaven with Jesus, are they disembodied spirits also?
 

Dan_473

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Mar 11, 2014
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In his Against Heresies Book III, at the end of chapter 3, Irenaeus says, “Then, again, the Church in Ephesus, founded by Paul, and having John remaining among them permanently until the times of Trajan, is a true witness of the tradition of the apostles.” Trajan began to rule in A.D. 98, and John was alive among the people of Ephesus till that time and perhaps a little while after.

In Against Heresies Book V.30.3, Irenaeus writes (declining to try to identify what the number of the beast signifies), “for if it were necessary that his name should be distinctly revealed in this present time, it would have been announced by him who beheld the apocalyptic vision. For that was seen no very long time since, but almost in our day, toward the end of Domitian’s reign.” Domitian died in A.D. 96.

As to John’s actual release from Patmos it would likely have been soon after the death of Domitian, as his edicts – such as banishments – would be voided on his death.


What you are reading is Irenaeus claiming in the first paragraph:
1) John was alive when Trajan ruled in 98 AD
2) John was at that time in the Church of Ephesus, the Church that Paul founded


second paragraph:
1) John kept hidden the number and name of the Beast because it was not time for that to be revealed
2) John is the one with the apocalyptic vision
3) John had his vision towards the end of the reign of Domitian (which confirms Domitian placed John in Patmos)
thanks for the references!

I don't doubt the John was alive in the 90s, or that the book of Revelation was written at about that time.

do you accept everything that irenaeus said as true?

for example, in that same book 3 chapter 3,
"2. Since, however, it would be very tedious, in such a volume as this, to reckon up the successions of all the Churches, we do put to confusion all those who, in whatever manner, whether by an evil self-pleasing, by vainglory, or by blindness and perverse opinion, assemble in unauthorized meetings; [we do this, I say,] by indicating that tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul; as also [by pointing out] the faith preached to men, which comes down to our time by means of the successions of the bishops."
https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0103303.htm
 
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No, I already know the typical anti-semitic clap trap verses.
Perhaps one day you’ll understand that Revelation is basically a Jewish book tying itself inextricably in with the Old Testament.
Well that’s pretty demeaning but I’ll give a civil answer.

Revelation is a deeply Jewish book, perhaps the most Jewish of all. It is the divorce proceedings between God and the faithless harlot Israel. The warnings Moses gave in Leviticus 26 if they were faithless come to pass. After that proceedings, the Kingdom of God no longer resided in political, racial or religious Israel.

The depictions are found in the OT and I’m told nothing new is there but i’ve no time to check this out myself. The language symbolism and metaphors are deeply Jewish with examples in the OT.

So you are wrong.