Mary's Genealogy

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Webers.Home

Well-known member
May 28, 2018
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Eve wasn't made directly from the soil the way that Adam was. She was
made of human material taken from Adam's body. In effect then, Eve was
Adam's offspring, i.e. his first child.

Hence, from then on, even if all of Eve's children had been 100% virgin
conceived, they would've still been biologically related to Adam seeing as
how every part of her body was made from Adam's body.

So then, unless somebody can prove beyond a shadow of sensible doubt
that no part of Mary's body was in any way biologically related to Eve's
body, then we have to concede that Mary's son Jesus was biologically related
to Eve too, and thus biologically related to Adam.
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ROFLhysterically. You are not serious, ....I hope.
Your theory........instead of the dog pulling the cart, you have the cart pulling the dog!
You do realize that the seed of 'Adam was the downfall of the whole human race, Mary included. Romans 5: 12-19
(Eve was deceived into eating the fruit, Adam ate in direct disobedience as it was God who told Adam to not eat of it. Yet Adam, when he passed this info to Eve, added that God said not to TOUCH it either. The very first sin...adding to the word of God (blasphemy)
 
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It's sometimes suggested that Mary was a surrogate mother. In other
words; baby Jesus was implanted in her womb as an embryo.

But the angel predicted that he would be the result of conception that was
to take place in Mary's body. Well; in order for Mary's body to conceive a
baby, her own ovum would have to be involved.

• Luke 1:31 . .Behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and
you shall name him Jesus.

• Luke 2:21 . . When eight days were completed for his circumcision, he was
named Jesus, the name given him by the angel before he was conceived in
the womb.
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Eve wasn't made directly from the soil the way that Adam was. She was
made of human material taken from Adam's body. In effect then, Eve was
Adam's offspring, i.e. his first child.


Hence, from then on, even if all of Eve's children had been 100% virgin
conceived, they would've still been biologically related to Adam seeing as
how every part of her body was made from Adam's body.


So then, unless somebody can prove beyond a shadow of sensible doubt
that no part of Mary's body was in any way biologically related to Eve's
body, then we have to concede that Mary's son Jesus was biologically related
to Eve too, and thus biologically related to Adam.
_

Well said. The genealogy of our Lord Jesus in Luke goes all the way back to Adam. But this does not mean that our Lord Jesus possessed Adam's post-fall nature. Here is how it works.
  1. In Genesis 1.11-12 God set an immutable Law. Everything that has its seed within itself will produce the same "kind".
  2. Eve was made of Adam's bone and flesh, making her the same "kind"
  3. God decrees that the first woman comes out of the man, but that thereafter, every man would come from the woman (1st Cor.11.12)
  4. Thus, our Lord Jesus is termed "seed of the woman" (Gen.3:15)
  5. The man, being the head, carries the responsibility for the fall. So by his sin death is propagated (Rom.5:12)
  6. Unlike Eve, the rest of men are produced by a function of the blood (Act.17:26)
  7. So while all men but One come from the woman, she is inseminated by the man and thus her offspring carry the sin-nature
  8. Jesus Christ is seed of the woman - making Him 100% Man ("kind")
  9. Jesus is not produced by the blood of a man, but the Holy Spirit (Matt.1:18, Lk.1:35). This makes Him (i) 100% God by the Law of "kinds" in Genesis 1:11-12, and (ii) without the sin-nature of Adam.
Jesus Christ must have five genealogies to lay His claims:
  1. He must be born of a woman to be 100% Man. This qualifies Him to die for men. Substitute animals are not acceptable, and angels cannot die. Jesus had to be a Man (Heb.2:16, 10:4)
  2. He must be born of a line that carries God's Promise that He will "possess the Gates of His enemies". "Gates" in Parable is government (Deut 21:18-19, 22:15, etc.). Thus Jesus must be seed of Abraham (Gen.22:17). According to Romans 4:13 Jesus will possess the whole world - making Him King of kings - Ruler of all on earth
  3. He must be born of the line of David to be King of the Jews. This He is by Nathan, ending in Mary. He is "blood royalty" via Mary
  4. He is not the son of Joseph who came from Solomon, but in that Joseph takes Him to be a Son (adopts Him), Jesus is heir to David's through LEGALLY via Joseph via Solomon
  5. To die for all men, past, present and future, Jesus must be ETERNAL. Thus, in John His genealogy is set as God Who had no beginning. Thus salvation is "eternal" (2nd Tim.2:10; Heb.5:9)
Finally, our Lord Jesus ends the old creation, and His ties to the womb of Mary, symbolically by Baptism, and in reality, on the cross. He is this firstborn of ALL creation (Col.1:15), AND when it became old through sin, He became firstborn of the new creation (2nd Cor.5:17).
 
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• Heb 7:14 . .It is clear that our Lord arose from Judah, and in regard to
that tribe, etc.

Throughout the Bible, it is normally the biological father's side of the family
that determines a child's tribal identity, but in Jesus' case there was no
biological father. So tribal determination defaulted to his biological mother's
side.

Mary's situation was unusual but not unbiblical. Inheritance via women
became an expedient back in Num 27:1-8.

Jesus' mom is sometimes alleged to be a member of Levi's tribe due to her
association with Elizabeth (Luke 1:5 and Luke 1:36). However, Levi and
Judah were brothers, i.e. both men were Leah's sons (Gen 29:34-35). So
then Mary and Elizabeth were cousins due to their association with the same
grandma rather than with the same tribe.
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This information is handy for proving that David was Mary's biological
grandfather.

• Rom 1:3 . . [God's] son Jesus Christ our Lord was made of the seed of
David according to the flesh

The Greek word translated "seed" in that passage is sperma (sper' mah)
which is a bit ambiguous because it can refer to biological progeny and/or
spiritual progeny.

I think it's pretty safe to assume that the passage below is speaking of
spiritual progeny.

"If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according
to the promise." (Gal 3:29)

However; Rom 1:3 is definitely speaking of biological progeny because
David's seed is according to the flesh, i.e. his body.
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This information is handy for proving that David was Mary's biological
grandfather.


• Rom 1:3 . . [God's] son Jesus Christ our Lord was made of the seed of
David according to the flesh


The Greek word translated "seed" in that passage is sperma (sper' mah)
which is a bit ambiguous because it can refer to biological progeny and/or
spiritual progeny.


I think it's pretty safe to assume that the passage below is speaking of
spiritual progeny.


"If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according
to the promise." (Gal 3:29)


However; Rom 1:3 is definitely speaking of biological progeny because
David's seed is according to the flesh, i.e. his body.
_

It is reasonable to think that Mary was of the line of David. Besides Roman 1:3 we also have Luke 1:32, "He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David" Since Joseph was not His father, and thus could not bring the blood-line of Jesus, the verse must refer to Mary to be true. But Acts 2:30 should settle it.

"Therefore (David) being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne".

This verse can only mean Mary.

But there is another consideration. Mary's role is not primarily to give Jesus the line of David (although we have established it anyway). Mary's role is to make sure that our Lord Jesus was "seed of the woman" - the thing that gives our Lord Jesus His HUMANITY. God's plan on earth is tied to mankind (Gen.1:26-28). The man is made of the earth, is nourished by the earth and is to rule the earth. After sin came in, it needed a MAN (kind) to save men (Gal.4:4; Phil.2:7; Heb.2:16).

Joseph, of the line of David and Solomon, does not have to be blood-line of Jesus for our Lord to be "of the HOUSE of David". He only needs to be adopted by Joseph. "Of the House of David" is for LEGALLY claiming the THRONE, and inheriting Israel.
 
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"Therefore (David) being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with
an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would
raise up Christ to sit on his throne".


It's been a very long time since someone reminded me of that passage. Thank you.
_
 
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"Therefore (David) being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with
an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would
raise up Christ to sit on his throne".


I just discovered that Greek words for "according to the flesh, he would
raise up Christ" are not in the manuscripts. The KJV's editors took the liberty
to pencil them into their English translation.

However, Greek words for "fruit of his loins" are in the manuscript. Those
are reinforced by the wording of the oath at 2Sam 7:12 where again David's
seed is clearly implied to be physical rather than spiritual.

See also Psalm 132:11 where it's said: The Lord has sworn to David, a truth
from which He will not turn back: "Of the fruit of your body I will set upon
your throne."
_
 
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I just discovered that Greek words for "according to the flesh, he would
raise up Christ" are not in the manuscripts. The KJV's editors took the liberty
to pencil them into their English translation.


However, Greek words for "fruit of his loins" are in the manuscript. Those
are reinforced by the wording of the oath at 2Sam 7:12 where again David's
seed is clearly implied to be physical rather than spiritual.


See also Psalm 132:11 where it's said: The Lord has sworn to David, a truth
from which He will not turn back: "Of the fruit of your body I will set upon
your throne."
_

Thank you very much for this info.

Go well bro.