The Purpose of Speaking in Tongues

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throughfaith said:
The purpose was to be a sign . Thats it .
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A sign that the person has received the Holy Ghost. That much is true. "The spirit itself beareth witness"

But that's not the only reason tongues is given. "For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth." -and- "God is a spirit, and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth"

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
jb said:
A thread was done on this subject very recently, you can find it Here
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Out of curiosity, Do you have the gift of speaking in tongues? I read the first two postings on that thread but will need to read more before replying in depth.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
Edify said:
I have a problem with those who say the gifts aren't for today because they ended or we no longer need them.

1. They can't prove it with scripture, because it's not there. Nowhere.
2. They will twist 1 Corinthians 13:8-12 like a pretzel to get it to say so.
3. They will use 3-4th century writers to prove it ended, when they usually are condemning such people for being part of the Roman Catholic church for not knowing what they're talking about.

It's always a double standard.
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Hi Edify,
Basically those who claim the gifts (including tongues) have ceased are fulfilling 2 Peter 3:3&4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.
They say "since the apostles died (fell asleep), all things continue as they were prior to the apostles"

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
notuptome said:
Your interpretation on the verse is exactly opposite of what the apostle is teaching.

Examine the usage of my spirit and the spirit in the text and notice how it makes your interpretation invalid.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
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no, your understanding is wrong. You look at the verser with a bias and out of context.

The Greek translates "spirit as pneuma meaning in context to the text here Holy Spirit in the person as 1cor chapters 12 to 14 are speaking on. "praying with my spirit " and praying with my understanding is very clear. Paul said I speak in tongues more than you all.

You have removed the context of the three chapters are you were told many times they are unit chapters on the Gifts of the Holy Spirit.

You read the three to see how they are no more. Yet Paul never says such a thing. You are in error.
 
KelbyofGod said:
Hi Edify,
Basically those who claim the gifts (including tongues) have ceased are fulfilling 2 Peter 3:3&4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.
They say "since the apostles died (fell asleep), all things continue as they were prior to the apostles"

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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While they "say" it, it's not true.
2Peter 3(with context)
3Most importantly, you must understand that in the last days scoffers will come, scoffing and following their own evil desires.a 4“Where is the promise of His coming?” they will ask. “Ever since our fathers fell asleep, everything continues as it has from the beginning of creation.”

5But they deliberately overlook the fact that long ago by God’s word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water, 6through whichb the world of that time perished in the flood. 7And by that same word, the present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men.
 
KelbyofGod said:
A sign that the person has received the Holy Ghost. That much is true. "The spirit itself beareth witness"

But that's not the only reason tongues is given. "For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth." -and- "God is a spirit, and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth"

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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No I see that the sign was to the Jews ( Peter and those with him ) . When they witness the gentiles speaking in languages ( tongues ) They see this as the ' sign ' that the gentiles also recieve the Holy Spirit . Its still a ' sign ' for Jews . They require a sign . Always have .
 
throughfaith said:
No I see that the sign was to the Jews ( Peter and those with him ) . When they witness the gentiles speaking in languages ( tongues ) They see this as the ' sign ' that the gentiles also recieve the Holy Spirit . Its still a ' sign ' for Jews . They require a sign . Always have .
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throughfaith said:
No I see that the sign was to the Jews ( Peter and those with him ) . When they witness the gentiles speaking in languages ( tongues ) They see this as the ' sign ' that the gentiles also recieve the Holy Spirit . Its still a ' sign ' for Jews . They require a sign . Always have .
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Tongues are a sign to the unbelieving... not just the unbelieving Jews. It's a sign because it's observable. Some may misinterpret everything about it, but on judgement day they won't be able to say that God didn't provide observable evidence that his spirit is poured out to those that receive him.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
KelbyofGod said:
Tongues are a sign to the unbelieving... not just the unbelieving Jews. It's a sign because it's observable. Some may misinterpret everything about it, but on judgement day they won't be able to say that God didn't provide observable evidence that his spirit is poured out to those that receive him.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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The other signs are also promised and observable. It surprises me that some people would rather blaspheme (speak against) God's promises than ask for them. Especially when they see others manifesting those signs. And I'm not trying to push that accusation upon anyone here. It's just a concept that blows my mind so-to-speak. The bible describes it in Mark 6:1-6 and specifically verse 6. Jesus didn't stop... He just marvelled at their unbelief and kept on teaching and doing for those that COULD believe.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
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I guess since this is a thread I started, it wouldn't be so wrong for me to take a few moments and praise God for the Holy Ghost and speaking in tongues and the other gifts that he gives to all whom he accounts worthy...and that he offers these things to All and says "Come" and "Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls."

And I'll share this with all who can receive it. Isaiah 28:11&12 is a prophecy that THIS (speaking in tongues) is the rest that he has given, for the spirit itself makes intercession (prays) for us with groanings (that are heard but not understood) that cannot be uttered (spoken in English, for we know not what to pray for as we ought) and He who searches the hearts ( God... for he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaks to GOD, not man) knows what is the mind of the spirit because He (the Holy Ghost / Holy Spirit) makes intercession FOR us.

THANK-YOU JESUS! \o/
 
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KelbyofGod said:
Tongues are a sign to the unbelieving... not just the unbelieving Jews. It's a sign because it's observable. Some may misinterpret everything about it, but on judgement day they won't be able to say that God didn't provide observable evidence that his spirit is poured out to those that receive him.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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Peter knew the Holy Spirit had been given to the gentiles when they spoke in tongues, just as they did 10 years earlier in Acts 2 . We don't see this being the case everytime in Acts . ( there are 29 conversion accounts ) The bible says that ' Jews require a sign ' . This verse tells us it is a sign . Mark 16
17And these SIGNS shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;

Why would a gentile with no history of ever requiring a sign in the entire bible , need to give a sign to unbelieving Gentiles ?
 
KelbyofGod said:
The other signs are also promised and observable. It surprises me that some people would rather blaspheme (speak against) God's promises than ask for them. Especially when they see others manifesting those signs. And I'm not trying to push that accusation upon anyone here. It's just a concept that blows my mind so-to-speak. The bible describes it in Mark 6:1-6 and specifically verse 6. Jesus didn't stop... He just marvelled at their unbelief and kept on teaching and doing for those that COULD believe.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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All of the references to signs are to Israel. Mark 16 is speaking to Jews for Jews. They require a sign .
1 Corinthians 1:22

“For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:”

All through the bible we see God's work to Israel confirmed with signs. The diciples only going to Jews at the time ( until 10 years after Acts 2 ,with cornielus, beginning the first to the gentiles ) They are given ' signs ' Healing , tongues ect as to show to the Jews that their message was from God . Signs accompanying, as Israel / Jews always expect from God .
We come along with our western / American minds and start messing with verses as if there all about us .
 
throughfaith said:
All of the references to signs are to Israel. Mark 16 is speaking to Jews for Jews. They require a sign .
1 Corinthians 1:22

“For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:”

All through the bible we see God's work to Israel confirmed with signs. The diciples only going to Jews at the time ( until 10 years after Acts 2 ,with cornielus, beginning the first to the gentiles ) They are given ' signs ' Healing , tongues ect as to show to the Jews that their message was from God . Signs accompanying, as Israel / Jews always expect from God .
We come along with our western / American minds and start messing with verses as if there all about us .
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I don't think you've thought your premise through to the end. (If you think it is somehow an argument against tongues)

Your argument concludes that we MUST still have speaking in tongues in operation today because it is a sign given to the Jews... and the Jews STILL require a sign....and speaking in tongues IS that sign to prove that a person (Jew or Gentile) has received the Holy Ghost.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
KelbyofGod said:
I don't think you've thought your premise through to the end. (If you think it is somehow an argument against tongues)

Your argument concludes that we MUST still have speaking in tongues in operation today because it is a sign given to the Jews... and the Jews STILL require a sign....and speaking in tongues IS that sign to prove that a person (Jew or Gentile) has received the Holy Ghost.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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But in clarification... The outpouring of the Holy Ghost (with speaking in tongues) was first given to those gathered (in one accord in one place) on the day of Pentecost when they were simply seeking God BEFORE the multitude (of unbelieving Jews) was gathered together to see what happened.

In other words they (Jesus' disciples) were seeking God for themselves (tarrying for the Holy Ghost) and not actively attempting to witness. The Holy Ghost (with speaking in tongues) was given to each and every one of the disciples individually (Look up the word "cloven").

The promise of the Holy Ghost (with associated signs) is a PROMISE to the believers even though it is a SIGN to the unbelievers. For the PROMISE is unto you and to your children and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call....(again, the PROMISE is to the believers even though it is a SIGN to the unbelievers).

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
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KelbyofGod said:
But in clarification... The outpouring of the Holy Ghost (with speaking in tongues) was first given to those gathered on the day of Pentecost when they were simply seeking God BEFORE the multitude (of unbelieving Jews) was gathered together to see what happened.

In other words they (Jesus' disciples) were seeking God for themselves (tarrying for the Holy Ghost) and not actively attempting to witness. The Holy Ghost (with speaking in tongues) was given to each and every one of the disciples individually (Look up the word "cloven").

The promise of the Holy Ghost (with associated signs) is a PROMISE to the believers even though it is a SIGN to the unbelievers. For the PROMISE is unto you and to your children and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call....(again, the PROMISE is to the believers even though it is a SIGN to the unbelievers).

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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I think you may have missed something very important. It was Jesus who commanded the Apostles to wait in Jerusalem Until you have been empowered Luke 24:49.

In Acts Chapter, one Jesus said " you shall receive power after the Holy Spirit comes upon you to be a WITNESS". in verse eight.

Who are we to witness to? it is those Jews in Jerusalem and those in Judaea, then to those distant from the jews at Samaria and the whole world down through the ages. The need for the Holy Spirit empowerment is greatly needed today because the WITNESSING has not stopped.
 
KelbyofGod said:
I don't think you've thought your premise through to the end. (If you think it is somehow an argument against tongues)

Your argument concludes that we MUST still have speaking in tongues in operation today because it is a sign given to the Jews... and the Jews STILL require a sign....and speaking in tongues IS that sign to prove that a person (Jew or Gentile) has received the Holy Ghost.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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I haven't mentioned ' still ' . Just dealing with what the text says .
 
CS1 said:
I think you may have missed something very important. It was Jesus who commanded the Apostles to wait in Jerusalem Until you have been empowered Luke 24:49.

In Acts Chapter, one Jesus said " you shall receive power after the Holy Spirit comes upon you to be a WITNESS". in verse eight.

Who are we to witness to? it is those Jews in Jerusalem and those in Judaea, then to those distant from the jews at Samaria and the whole world down through the ages. The need for the Holy Spirit empowerment is greatly needed today because the WITNESSING has not stopped.
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Indeed that is another reason. :)

So is the still-relevant need to "edify himself" (which speaking in tongues does) and "edify the church" (which prophesying does).

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
throughfaith said:
I haven't mentioned ' still ' . Just dealing with what the text says .
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If they are still Jews and the text still applies to the jews, then it is still applicable. If you remove the word "still" you are left with the same conclusion... "If they are Jews and the text applies to jews then it is applicable" (Both then and today and as long as there are Jews)

AKA you would have to prove that it is NOT applicable today before you could remove the need for speaking in tongues.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
@throughfaith and ALL,

I would add this exhortation on top of all of that... If you can see that it must still apply, PLEASE stop resisting the promise of God and instead begin to seek it for yourself. It is truly available to all that the Lord our God shall call.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 
KelbyofGod said:
@throughfaith and ALL,

I would add this exhortation on top of all of that... If you can see that it must still apply, PLEASE stop resisting the promise of God and instead begin to seek it for yourself. It is truly available to all that the Lord our God shall call.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
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Just like what Eve said to Adam, look it's good to eat. Now where did she receive that information?

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
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