Who are the NEPHILIM in Genesis 6

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,929
1,258
113
The Scriptures say that NO ANGELS are sexual!
The scriptures DO NOT say that.

Spiritual beings can not have physical sex with humans women!
Angels are physical beings and some did have sex with human women and children were born who were giants. Those giants were seen and even fought in the OT.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
2,373
113
It is possible that the New Jerusalem is the place that he is referring to.
No, it is not possible. By saying so, you are inferring that it is referring to the new Jerusalem when it comes down to the new earth. But that is not what the scripture says:

"In My Father’s house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I am going there to prepare a place for you? And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you also may be where I am."

Since we know that Jesus ascended to the right hand of God where He ever makes intercession for us, then it is heaven where He went to prepare those places for us. For He says, "I am going there (the Father's house) to prepare places for you (all believers). Then He says, "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you may be where I am." Since Jesus went to the Father's house, then that is where He will be taking believers to when He comes to gather us.

This is very simple to understand. I Thess.4:13-17 is a detailed account of John 14:1-3, regarding the Lord's appearing to gather His church.

Revelation 19:6-8 has the church/bride already in heaven at the wedding of the Lamb, receiving her fine linen, white and clean. Then Rev.19:14 shows the church following Christ out of heaven to the earth to end the age and riding on white horses and wearing the same fine linen that the bride will have received at the wedding.

This blessed hope, the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ to come and gather us to take us back to the Father's house and receive our immortal and glorified bodies, is what all believers should be watching for and anticipating. Following that event will be the time of God's wrath, which is why we must be gathered prior to that, because we are not appointed to suffer God's coming wrath.

By the way, what dose this have to do with the Nephilim?
 
L

Live4Him

Guest
No, it is not possible. By saying so, you are inferring that it is referring to the new Jerusalem when it comes down to the new earth. But that is not what the scripture says:

"In My Father’s house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I am going there to prepare a place for you? And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you also may be where I am."

Since we know that Jesus ascended to the right hand of God where He ever makes intercession for us, then it is heaven where He went to prepare those places for us. For He says, "I am going there (the Father's house) to prepare places for you (all believers). Then He says, "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you may be where I am." Since Jesus went to the Father's house, then that is where He will be taking believers to when He comes to gather us.
"In My Father's house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I am going THERE to prepare a place for you?"

Show me/us, if you would be so kind, where this word "there" that I've capitalized and bold-faced appears in the underlying Greek text.

Without it, what you're suggesting totally falls apart.

Do you see it here in the underlying Greek of the text?

https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/jhn/14/1/t_conc_1011002

I don't.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
2,373
113
Hi, Ahwatukee.

I've already addressed John 14:1-3 and what you referenced from I Thessalonians chapter 4, so I'll just concentrate on your other points in this response.

Here's what Revelation chapter 19 says:

[6] And I heard as it were the voice of a great multitude, and as the voice of many waters, and as the voice of mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigns.
[7] Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honor to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.
[8] And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.
[9] And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
[10] And I fell at his feet to worship him. And he said unto me, See thou do it not: I am thy fellowservant, and of thy brethren that have the testimony of Jesus: worship God: for the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
[11] And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.

Where does this say "Rev.19:6-8 also has the church/bride in heaven attending the wedding of the Lamb"?

Instead, it says "the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready" (vs. 7).
Really? Do you know that the marriage is the same as a wedding?

The bride/church is receiving her fine linen, white and clean at the wedding of the Lamb.

All you are attempting to do here, is distort or circumvent the information given here.

Do you HONESTLY believe that while "the marriage supper of the Lamb" is allegedly taking place in heaven there are saints on the earth who are excluded from the same?
Yes, believers who will have been continuing in faith, watching and anticipating the Lord's appearing to gather us, will be caught up and taken to the Father's house. Once this event takes place, that will end the church period. Those saints that you are referring to, will be those who will become believers after the church has been removed from the earth and during the time of God's wrath. They are never referred to as the church. Though they will belong to Christ, they are another group. This group of saints, because they will have become believers after the gathering of the church, will also be exposed to all of the plagues of wrath that will be taking place on the earth, simply because they will be here.

The next event to take place will be the gathering of the church. Jesus warns believers within the church to always be on the watch and ready, not in carousing and drunkenness, and by the worries of this life. For if so, He says that day (the day of the Lord) will close on you like a trap. This group which no man can count, will be those who become believers after the church has been gathered from the earth.

Previously, John was told to write letters to the seven churches. Then in Rev.7, John sees a vision of saints which no man can count, of which the elder asks John who they are? The very fact that he is asking this demonstrates that he is not referring to the church which John just previously wrote letters to, but is introducing a new group and of which John says that he doesn't know who they are. In addition, they referred to as the ekklesia/church.

Throughout chapters 1 thru 3, the word ekklesia/church is used 19 times, with the last use being the end of chapter 3. Rev.4:1 is a prophetic allusion to where the church is gathered by that voice that sounds like a trumpet, which is identified as Jesus' voice in Rev.1:10 and which says, "come up here!" After this, you never see the word ekklesia/church again. The next time the church is alluded to is as the bride at the wedding of the Lamb in Rev.19:7. And the next time the word ekklesia/church is used again is in Revelation 22:16, which is outside of the narrative of God's wrath.


There are saints on the earth during a time a tribulation like the world has never known.

They're crying out in desperation to Jesus...and he's eating a piece of lamb or something in heaven.
Yes, there will be 'saints' on the earth during the time of God's wrath. The unbelieving nation of Israel will also be on the earth. The 144,000 will also be on the earth, but only until the middle of the seven years, where at which time they will be caught up to God and His throne.

Doesn't scripture tell us that Jesus will remain seated at the Father's right hand until his enemies are made his footstool?

Doesn't he continually make intercession for the saints while at the Father's right hand as our merciful and faithful high priest?
That does not mean that Jesus is handcuffed to His throne! I don't know why people attempt to restrict the Lord with these scriptures.

The church can't be on the earth during the time of God's wrath, because Jesus already experienced God's wrath on behalf of every believer within the church, satisfying it completely. Therefore, God's wrath no longer rests upon the believer. Those great tribulation saints will be on the earth during that time because they will have not been believers prior to the church being gather and will therefore enter into that time period of God's wrath.

Look, I honestly like you, I truly do, but, seriously, please just give up this heretical nonsense and embrace the actual truth of scripture.
This is not heretical, but are the deeper understanding of God's word.

Again, there are only TWO RESURRECTIONS, and "the first resurrection" takes place when Christ returns, so how the heck did people allegedly receive glorified, resurrected bodies in an alleged "rapture to heaven" PRIOR TO THE FIRST RESURRECTION?
You are correct in that, there are two resurrections. However, the first resurrection has stages or phases. It is not restricted a one time event:

* Jesus the first fruits

* The church at His appearing (Resurrection of the dead and changing of the living)

* The 144,000 (caught up in the middle of the seven)

* The two witnesses

* The great tribulation saints (Revelation 20:4-6, which takes place after Jesus returns to the earth to end the age)

The first resurrection does not mean 'only' resurrection. It could be better understood as the resurrections which take place prior to the one at the end of the thousand years, which will be a resurrection of the unrighteous dead throughout all of history.

All resurrections which take place prior to the end of the end of the thousand years belong to the first resurrection.

Just fyi, if you will notice in Rev.20:4-6, there is only a resurrection which takes place. There is no living believers changed and caught up at that one. This is where the saints who will have died during the tribulation period will be resurrected.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
No, it is not possible. By saying so, you are inferring that it is referring to the new Jerusalem when it comes down to the new earth. But that is not what the scripture says:

"In My Father’s house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I am going there to prepare a place for you? And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you also may be where I am."

Since we know that Jesus ascended to the right hand of God where He ever makes intercession for us, then it is heaven where He went to prepare those places for us. For He says, "I am going there (the Father's house) to prepare places for you (all believers). Then He says, "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you may be where I am." Since Jesus went to the Father's house, then that is where He will be taking believers to when He comes to gather us.

This is very simple to understand. I Thess.4:13-17 is a detailed account of John 14:1-3, regarding the Lord's appearing to gather His church.

Revelation 19:6-8 has the church/bride already in heaven at the wedding of the Lamb, receiving her fine linen, white and clean. Then Rev.19:14 shows the church following Christ out of heaven to the earth to end the age and riding on white horses and wearing the same fine linen that the bride will have received at the wedding.

This blessed hope, the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ to come and gather us to take us back to the Father's house and receive our immortal and glorified bodies, is what all believers should be watching for and anticipating. Following that event will be the time of God's wrath, which is why we must be gathered prior to that, because we are not appointed to suffer God's coming wrath.

By the way, what dose this have to do with the Nephilim?
Where would these people be when the earth is wiped out and a new earth is created? If they are with christ and then they reign with him for a 1000 years and then the earth is wiped out and a new earth is created were are they? 2And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband

So yes, it is possible that this PREPARED New Jerusalem is the ultimate place PREPARED and the one Jesus was talking about. You see if those that he was talking to ultimately wind up in this vision of the New Jerusalem PREPARED by Jesus then it can still apply. You may not think so and that is your right but it is a possible interpretation. Ultimately God will tabernacle with men on the New Earth. You would put them in temporary rooms/mansions that get replaced later by the New Jerusalem, whereas I would think Jesus was referring to the New Jerusalem when he made the statement of what he was going to prepare for them.


This has nothing to do with giants. We are derailing the thread. It was bound to happen.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,929
1,258
113
"In My Father's house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I am going THERE to prepare a place for you?"

Show me/us, if you would be so kind, where this word "there" that I've capitalized and bold-faced appears in the underlying Greek text.
Actually, can YOU show us that any English words appear in the Greek texts? If you want to complain about one, you might as well complain about all of them.
 
L

Live4Him

Guest
Actually, can YOU show us that any English words appear in the Greek texts? If you want to complain about one, you might as well complain about all of them.
Is it possible that you have nothing better to do in life than to make ridiculous posts like this?

Of course, I was asking him to show me/us where the Greek word actually appears in the text that was translated into "there" in English?

Perhaps you can find it?

When you do, let us know.

Thanks.
 
L

Live4Him

Guest
No, it is not possible. By saying so, you are inferring that it is referring to the new Jerusalem when it comes down to the new earth. But that is not what the scripture says:

"In My Father’s house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I am going there to prepare a place for you? And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you also may be where I am."

Since we know that Jesus ascended to the right hand of God where He ever makes intercession for us, then it is heaven where He went to prepare those places for us. For He says, "I am going there (the Father's house) to prepare places for you (all believers). Then He says, "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and welcome you into My presence, so that you may be where I am." Since Jesus went to the Father's house, then that is where He will be taking believers to when He comes to gather us.

This is very simple to understand. I Thess.4:13-17 is a detailed account of John 14:1-3, regarding the Lord's appearing to gather His church.

Revelation 19:6-8 has the church/bride already in heaven at the wedding of the Lamb, receiving her fine linen, white and clean. Then Rev.19:14 shows the church following Christ out of heaven to the earth to end the age and riding on white horses and wearing the same fine linen that the bride will have received at the wedding.

This blessed hope, the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ to come and gather us to take us back to the Father's house and receive our immortal and glorified bodies, is what all believers should be watching for and anticipating. Following that event will be the time of God's wrath, which is why we must be gathered prior to that, because we are not appointed to suffer God's coming wrath.

By the way, what dose this have to do with the Nephilim?
Sorry, but what you posted isn't simple to understand because it's utter nonsense.

Let's look at I Thessalonians 4:13-17 in a slightly broader context, shall we?

I Thessalonians chapter 4

[13] But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
[14] For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
[15] For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
[16] For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
[17] Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
[18] Wherefore comfort one another with these words.

I Thessalonians chapter 5

[1] But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.
[2] For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
[3] For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.
[4] But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.
[5] Ye are all the children of light, and the children of the day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness.
[6] Therefore let us not sleep, as do others; but let us watch and be sober.
[7] For they that sleep sleep in the night; and they that be drunken are drunken in the night.

Hmmmm?

"As a thief"?

"Watch"?

Where have I heard that before?

Oh, yeah, right here:

"Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed is he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments, lest he walk naked, and they see his shame." (Rev. 16:15)

Again, this is what JESUS CHRIST says in the timeframe between the pouring out of the 6th and 7th vials OF THE WRATH OF GOD, AND this is PRIOR TO THE SECOND COMING OF CHRIST (he only comes twice) that Paul was actually talking about in his first epistle to the Thessalonians or PRIOR TO "that day" when Jesus returns "as a thief".

My advice to you is that you repent of your antichristian (your teaching is opposed to what Christ himself taught, so it literally is antichrist) beliefs and teachings in relation to this topic, but I suspect that you'll just persist in the same.

Whatever you decide, I've told you the truth, and I offer no apologies whatsoever for that.

Good night.
 
L

Live4Him

Guest
Hey, Scribe.

I'll let this thread resume its original course, but, before I go, please allow me to offer you this solemn piece of advice:

Don't be deceived by any of the nonsense a certain poster here has been directing your way.

Again, the actual context of what Paul wrote in I Thessalonians chapters 4 and 5 concerns the timeframe when Jesus returns as "a thief in the night" or "as a thief".

I've already shown that he hasn't yet returned "as a thief" in the timeframe between the 6th and 7th vials of the wrath of God being poured out, and now I'll quickly remind you of the following in relation to the timeframe of a "thief in the night":

II Peter chapter 3

[8] But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
[9] The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
[10] But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
[11] Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
[12] Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
[13] Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.

Again, as you and I have previously discussed, "one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day", and Peter said that we must not be ignorant of this reality or else we won't understand what the went on to say about "the day of the Lord".

In other words, "the day of the Lord" won't be just a literal 24 hour day, but rather a 1,000 year period of time WHICH BEGINS WHEN CHRIST COMES "AS A THIEF IN THE NIGHT" AS HE USHERS IN HIS MILLENNIAL REIGN.

EVERYTHING that I've shared with you thus far (and I could share much more) perfectly fits together BECAUSE IT'S WHAT THE BIBLE ACTUALLY TEACHES.

Anyhow, I hope that you'll prayerfully ponder these things before the Lord.

Good night.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,656
13,065
113
In other words, "the day of the Lord" won't be just a literal 24 hour day, but rather a 1,000 year period of time WHICH BEGINS WHEN CHRIST COMES "AS A THIEF IN THE NIGHT" AS HE USHERS IN HIS MILLENNIAL REIGN.
The Millennial reign of Christ establishes peace, righteousness, and tranquility on earth. The Day of the LORD is the period of divine wrath and judgment before the Millennium is established. So you are totally confused.

Furthermore, the metaphor of a thief in the night does not mean that Christ comes as a thief to steal what does not rightly belong to Him. However just as a thief breaking into a house unannounced and unexpectedly in the night is sudden and without precedent, the coming of Christ at the Rapture will be sudden, unannounced, and unexpected.
 
L

Live4Him

Guest
The Millennial reign of Christ establishes peace, righteousness, and tranquility on earth. The Day of the LORD is the period of divine wrath and judgment before the Millennium is established. So you are totally confused.

Furthermore, the metaphor of a thief in the night does not mean that Christ comes as a thief to steal what does not rightly belong to Him. However just as a thief breaking into a house unannounced and unexpectedly in the night is sudden and without precedent, the coming of Christ at the Rapture will be sudden, unannounced, and unexpected.
The one who is clearly confused is you, so you might want to see to that.

Who said anything about Christ stealing what does not rightly belong to him?

Seriously, you would have been better off not posting anything at all.

Anyhow, the scriptures that I've posted are there for you all to reject to your own hurt (from God, not me).

At my end, I've told you all nothing but the truth.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,929
1,258
113
Is it possible that you have nothing better to do in life than to make ridiculous posts like this?

Of course, I was asking him to show me/us where the Greek word actually appears in the text that was translated into "there" in English?

The point you failed to understand is that it was your post was ridiculous since no proper translation is purely word-for-word. A translator needs to use as many words as he feels is needed to carry forth the exact and correct meaning of the original. The use of "there" is perfectly valid and doesn't need to be found in the Greek texts for all the obvious of reasons.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,478
4,112
113
It was not possible for man to be a son of God in Genesis 6. After the fall, man could only become a son of God through the new birth after the cross.
it is not possible for angel to be one lol
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,478
4,112
113
You stated your opinion of what a son of God was/is, no specific scripture.
NO,

if you don't know where the bible says Noah walked with God, and the others as Adam did that is you.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,478
4,112
113
All anyone has to do is actually READ the book of Enoch.

It is "Occultic"!!!!! Nothing in it can be accepted.
the issue I have with the book of Enoch are very simple:

1. Enoch did not write it and there is no proof he did.
2. it was a verbal tradition passed down to those who wrote it.
3. it was promoted by the Gnostics which support pseudo gospels
4. reading it in the light of Genesis 6 and Jude there are clear contradictions and errors with Enoch writers.


God-inspired word doesn't have errors, therefore Enoch did not cut the mustard as the other 66 books which have something in all that Enoch doesn't have Christ or something to do with Him.

in the 66 books we have :

  • God breathed into his inspired word
  • God kept His word
  • prophecies of the coming Christ
  • Christphanies
  • genealogies of the Massiah
  • Historical narratives
  • geographical location
  • archeological data, and finding to support what is in the 66

With all this, the book of Enoch is very much lacking.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,478
4,112
113
the issue I have with the book of Enoch are very simple:

1. Enoch did not write it and there is no proof he did.
2. it was a verbal tradition passed down to those who wrote it.
3. it was promoted by the Gnostics which support pseudo gospels
4. reading it in the light of Genesis 6 and Jude there are clear contradictions and errors with Enoch writers.


God-inspired word doesn't have errors, therefore Enoch did not cut the mustard as the other 66 books which have something in all that Enoch doesn't have Christ or something to do with Him.

in the 66 books we have :

  • God breathed into his inspired word
  • God kept His word
  • prophecies of the coming Christ
  • Christphanies
  • genealogies of the Massiah
  • Historical narratives
  • geographical location
  • archeological data, and finding to support what is in the 66

With all this, the book of Enoch is very much lacking.
You can throw in the book of jubilees too they are known pseudepigraphical works meaning "False"
 

Major

Active member
Dec 12, 2020
885
183
43
the issue I have with the book of Enoch are very simple:

1. Enoch did not write it and there is no proof he did.
2. it was a verbal tradition passed down to those who wrote it.
3. it was promoted by the Gnostics which support pseudo gospels
4. reading it in the light of Genesis 6 and Jude there are clear contradictions and errors with Enoch writers.


God-inspired word doesn't have errors, therefore Enoch did not cut the mustard as the other 66 books which have something in all that Enoch doesn't have Christ or something to do with Him.

in the 66 books we have :

  • God breathed into his inspired word
  • God kept His word
  • prophecies of the coming Christ
  • Christphanies
  • genealogies of the Massiah
  • Historical narratives
  • geographical location
  • archeological data, and finding to support what is in the 66

With all this, the book of Enoch is very much lacking.
All of that is true. Now allow me to give you an example of just how OCCULTIC the book of Enoch is in chapter 40:9-10.........
"I have seen and whose words I have heard and written down?’ And he said to me: ‘This first is Michael, the merciful and long-suffering: and the second, who is set over all the diseases and all the wounds of the children of men, is Raphael: and the third, who is set over all the powers, is Gabriel: and the fourth, who is set over the repentance unto hope of those who inherit eternal life, is named Phanuel.’
10 And these are the four angels of the Lord of Spirits and the four voices I heard in those days.​
The Bible never mentions an angel named Raphael or Phanuel, let alone an angel who is set over the repentance of those who inherit eternal life. What blasphemy! That statement in itself contradicts everything the Word of God teaches.

We read in 1st Timothy 2:5 that Jesus Christ is the ONLY Mediator between God and men, not some angel named Phanuel... "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus."

Repentance is strictly between a man and Jesus Christ alone. Only Jesus died for our sins, and shed His blood to pay for them (1st Peter 1:18-19); therefore, we must be diligent to guard and defend against LIARS and imposters who would lead people to believe otherwise. 1st John 2:22 clearly indicts all Christ-deniers as LIARS, guilty before God.

Now IMHO.....if that was ALL that was found in the book of Enoch, then that alone is enough for the whole book to be rejected!!!!!!