Further, when Tyndale used it, he never associates it with paganism. He used it to mean both Passover and Easter.
The intention of changing the name and the date was to sever the connection between the revealed Messiah and the Jewish people from which He sprang - and all those things aside, it remains an incorrect translation. It's not a translation at all; it's a calculated insertion of a newly arisen human tradition into the Bible.
If it is the perfect will of God that the word Pascha be erased and replaced, why is it that the Holy Spirit wrote Pascha? Why doesn't anyone who reads the word of God in any language other than German or English see anything other than the Lord's Passover? Are we better than them?
I don't think that you are able to look at this objectively Fred. because of your deference to all things KJV you won't allow yourself to do anything but apologize for it. It doesn't even enter your mind that it those men a scant 400 years ago might have made a poor decision.