John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
The Word WAS/IS God and God WAS/IS The Word.
Taken from your OWN quote. Does this match YOUR Trinity diagram?
NO, it does not.
FlyingDove said:
(NOTE: Before the flash point of creation. The Word/Jesus (Rev 13:19) was with God (The Father) and was/is also God)
The FLASH point of creation? BIG BANG heresy and blasphemy of science-so-called?
Again, you are proving ONENESS, not Trinity. They are the same person, NOT 'distinct' from one another.
Webster's New World Dictionary, copyright 1968
Distinct ... 1. not alike; different 2. not the same; separate; individual
FlyingDove said:
Jn 16:28 Jesus said, I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father
(NOTE: The SON of God/Jesus say's, He came forth from the Father. He will return to the Father. Although, The Son is ONE WITH, he's NOT the Father)
Wrong.
FlyingDove said:
Jn 17:5 O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
(NOTE: Before the world began, the Son, enjoyed glory "WITH" the Father. "NOT AS" the Father)
In Mark 12:28-30, Jesus states that the most important aspect of all of scripture is this: "The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel;
The Lord our God is one Lord:" that is ONE 'HE' entity. NOT 3 PERSONS in one as Trinity claims.
God is ONE PRONOUN, NOT one "it/thing", NOT one 'Unity/Union" ... ONE GOD. One person. Period.
FlyingDove said:
When Jesus prays to the Father:
(Question: Does Jesus pray to himself?)
Apparently He does in some way.
The Father is 'spirit' ...
"God is
a Spirit: and they that worship Him must worship Him
in spirit and in Truth." (John 4:24)
...He exists in a higher vibrational dimension where there is no time because
time is a created thing. If God created TIME, then it does not exist where He exists.
"...one day is with the Lord as a thousand years,
and a thousand years as one day."(2 Pet. 3:8) This means there is no concept of 'TIME' where He exists.
...He also sees the end from the beginning for this reason.
"Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, ..."(Is. 46:10)
Jesus Christ was 'in-the-flesh' when He prayed to the Father. That means He,
at that time, existed in a lower vibrational dimension and was thus 'less' than the Father. He even claims that He was not yet ascended which proves that He was 'less' than the Father at that time. Once He was again Glorified, He was again just as the Father is.
Before His crucifixion, Jesus prayed this prayer to the Father:
"And now, O Father, glorify thou Me with thine own self
with the glory which I had with Thee before the world was." (John 17:5)
FlyingDove said:
John 14:28 Jesus say's, the Father is greater then him:
(Question: Is this scripture wrong or did Jesus lie here?)
No. Jesus does not lie. The Father was greater
at that moment. The Father was in the spirit and glorified, Jesus was in the flesh.
FlyingDove said:
John 16:28 I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father.
(Question: Did/does Jesus send himself?)
God sent Himself into the flesh ... into His own story. The Author stepped onto the stage
for a time to clarify Himself and to be an example to all who would follow Him to the end of time. God wrote the Bible, and gave guidance in every way imaginable, to save His beloved elect from the attempts of
'death' to destroy His creation and His plan.
FlyingDove said:
Is Jesus returning to himself? Rereading I came from the Father (Jn 3:16 God sent his Son) I leave this world & return to the Father)
Yes, He did. And, once glorified, He sent
the Spirit of the Father and Son (which 'IS' the Father and Son - unlike Trinity) to those He so chose. For whatever reason, He could/would not do that before He was once again ONE, and glorified, with the Father.
This also proves ONENESS in that IF the Father, Son and HG
were '
separate' ,'distinct' persons, the HG could have been sent while Jesus was in the flesh upon the earth.
It could not be.
FlyingDove said:
Heb 10:12 (B&C) after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
(Question: Does Jesus sit down next to himself?) BTW this isn't the earthly/flestlyJesus, its the risen/glorified Jesus)
Your own Trinity doctrine claims that
'right hand' is simply an affirmation of equality with the Father.
The “right hand” is seen as a place of honor and status throughout the biblical text. When the Bible makes statements that Jesus Christ sits at the right hand of the Father, it is affirming that he has equal status to the Father
https://www.gcu.edu/blog/theology-m... Father&text=The “right hand” is seen,7:55-56).
I tend to agree.
The second part of that question has already been answered.
FlyingDove said:
Rev 5:7 And he (Vs 5, the Loin of the tribe of Juda, Vs 6 the Lamb) came and took the book out of the right hand of him that sat upon the throne.
(My Note: Here again, this isn't the fleshly/earthly Jesus. This is the risen/glorified Jesus. Question: Does the risen/glorified Jesus/Lamb/Christ take the book from himself?)
In my research and study of the Bible, I have come to the conclusion that the lion and the Lamb are
not the same person, and they are NOT both God. That is a topic for an entire 'nother thread altogether.
The rest of your post has been answered above.