Who was Jesus praying to in the garden of Gethsemane?

Jocund · May 15, 2021

Martin Luther was a great example of someone that held the primary authority on scripture (Prima Scriptura, though he called it Sola Scriptura as a misnomer) but also gave status and authority to catholic doctrine (Nicene Creed, Apostle's Creed, etc.).

It's fine to do but there is no reason to give authority to "history and church fathers" which have without doubt been subject to politics and human fallibility. Even if we look beyond Sola Scriptura, the question comes back to "whose version of history?" and "which church?"

Is scripture read from the heart ever in a vacuum?

Jocund · May 15, 2021

TheLearner said:

If LDS teaches that Jesus is a creation and that Satan is a creation, in a fashion I suppose they would share the category of being brothers. Not sure. I'm not an expert in LDS. The point was more about highlighting an example form of Christianity that was non-Trinitarian.

My point was that even if someone had an incorrect conceptualization of the nature and essence of Christ, that they could still be in Christ by faith. Perfect understanding isn't necessary for salvation.

PC123 · May 15, 2021

TheLearner said:

Im not publishing any doctrines my friend... You are... The trinity
I've clearly stated that i don't understand it... A huge difference

And for all that has been said, my follow up question just gets run around.
If Jesus is God, then why would he pray to himself? Is God not omniscient and omnipotent?

Jocund · May 16, 2021

PC123 said:

I'll take a crack at this question and hopefully someone will correct me if my explanation needs refining.

One metaphor for the Trinity is the sun. There is the surface of the star itself, so many AU away from earth, that would represent the Father. There is the beam of light that stretches through spaces, causing solar wind, that would represent the Spirit. And there is the light that reaches you, touches and interacts with you directly, that would be Jesus. Despite all being different parts of the same sun, there are differences in their relationship to human experience. The light that touches you is consistent with the surface of the sun, but it isn't in perfect chronological sync. There is a delay between one and the other and a need for that connection. Like a flower opening up to the sunbeams, perhaps the mortal-bodied Jesus so too needed to attune that physical vessel to the source, thus we read that Jesus was praying.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

justahumanbeing said:

If you are in a spirit of doubt, cast that spirit away in the name of Jesus and believe that He is the Father, Son and the Holy Spirit. That's who He is and that's how He reveals Himself throughout the Bible and especially the New Testament. You don't seem to have too much of a problem accepting that you don't know everything.

From the beginning, God has always been mysterious. Although, you're a Christian, a part of you is still holding on to rationality. You'll have your questions. Jesus always said that in order to follow Him and be redeemed by Him, You need to have child like faith.

Luke 18:17 - Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child shall in no wise enter therein.

That's all you need. Set aside you doubts and believe in God without your questions so that you live a complete life as a follower of Christ, blessed with every blessing God promises His children both in this life and the life after this life. Eternal life. If God says He is three persons in one God, why would you question that? Are you still an Atheist? Are you still a rationalist? See, God has brought you into a life of faith and brought you back to Him. You asking these questions and carrying these doubts within you is you taking a step back from faith and belief in Jesus. Why would you doubt when He has brought you back? Why would you doubt when you already believe?

And He clearly puts it in the Bible, "Unless you believe in me like a child does, you will not enter the Kingdom of Heaven." If you realise what's at stake when you don't believe, I think you would begin to believe. What is important is that God is there for you. Your sins have been forgiven. God offers you a new life in Him and does not judge you for who you were or who you are as long as you believe in Him and that He died for your sins and that He is the way to enter Heaven. He is the way out of all your troubles on earth as well. There is power in Jesus' name. Forget the rest of the world and everyone in it. Jesus loves you and He is your redeemer. That's all that matters. Don't doubt. Just believe in Jesus without doubting Him. God bless you.

doubt is not a spirit one casts out.

Daniel 5:12
Forasmuch as an excellent spirit, and knowledge, and understanding, interpreting of dreams, and shewing of hard sentences, and dissolving of doubts, were found in the same Daniel, whom the king named Belteshazzar: now let Daniel be called, and he will shew the interpretation

doubt is something one seeks answers for so when we encounter someone who has the same questions we can give them godly answers. I Peter 3:15

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

PC123 said:

OK, Jesus is not praying to himself.

In fact as I said before both the Holy Spirit and Jesus prays to the father for us today.

Romans 8

26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.

Concerning your other question:

Is God not omniscient and omnipotent? The Son of God when he incarnated into human form simply chose not to practice those attributes while on earth.

Think of a major league ball player. When he is playing with his children for their sake, he does not play to the best of his ability to let them grow and improve at the sport of baseball. From time to time some of his divine attributes slip out. The Dad does not want to frustrate his kids.

Example, when saw someone who are not in his physical sight.

Philippians 2:5-11

Easy-to-Read Version

Learn From Christ to Be Unselfish
5 In your life together, think the way Christ Jesus thought.
6 He was like God in every way,
but he did not think that his being equal with God was something to use for his own benefit.
7 Instead, he gave up everything, even his place with God.
He accepted the role of a servant, appearing in human form.
During his life as a man,
8 he humbled himself by being fully obedient to God,
even when that caused his death—death on a cross.
9 So God raised him up to the most important place
and gave him the name that is greater than any other name.
10 God did this so that every person will bow down to honor the name of Jesus.
Everyone in heaven, on earth, and under the earth will bow.
11 They will all confess, “Jesus Christ is Lord,”
and this will bring glory to God the Father.

As to understanding the Trinity we need only take the authority of Scripture and accept that it is there.

Here is an outline on the Trinity https://www.calvarychapelboston.com/Biblical Basis Trinity Bowman.pdf

Please print it out and read it.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

There Is One God
1. One God: Explicit Statements
  1. OT: Deut. 4:35, 39; 32:39; 2 Sam. 22:32; 2 Kings 5:15; Is. 37:20; 43:10; 44:6-8; 45:5, 14, 21-22; 46:9
  2. NT: John 5:44; Rom. 3:30; 16:27; 1 Cor. 8:4-6; Gal. 3:20; Eph. 4:6; 1 Tim. 1:17; 2:5; James 2:19; Jude 25
2. None like God (in his essence)
  1. Explicit statements: Ex. 8:10; 9:14; 15:11; 2 Sam. 7:22; 1 Kgs. 8:23; 1 Chr. 17:20; Ps. 86:8; Is. 40:18, 25; 44:7; 46:5, 9; Jer. 10:6-7; Micah 7:18
  2. Being like God a Satanic lie: Gen. 3:5; Is. 14:14; John 8:44
  3. Fallen man become "like God" only in that he took upon himself to know good and evil, not that he acquired godhood: Gen. 3:22
3. Only one true God: 2 Chr. 15:3; Jer. 10:10; John 17:3; 1 Thess. 1:9; 1 John 5:20-21
  1. Antitrinitarians sometimes argue that the word translated "true" in John 17:3 (alêthinos) actually means "archetypal," referring to the Father as the archetypal or original God, thus allowing Christ to be designated "God" in a derivative or secondary sense.
  2. Even if this interpretation were possible for John 17:3, it is not for the OT texts, since the Hebrew word for "true" ('emet) never means "archetypal."
  3. Elsewhere, the expression "the true God" in context contrasts this God with idols or false gods, not with genuine though derivative gods:
    1. 2 Chron. 15:3—Just as Israel was for many days "without the true God" but then turned back to him (vv. 3-6), so Asa turned to him by first removing all the idols from the land (v. 7 [1]).
    2. Jer. 10:10—Israel not to fear the gods of the nations, worshiped in idols (10:1-9); the true God is the living God (v. 10) and the Creator of the world (vv. 11-12).
    3. 1 Thess. 1:9—the Thessalonians turned from idols to serve the living and true God.
    4. 1 John 5:20-21—We are in the true God and eternal life (v. 20b), and should guard ourselves from idols (v. 21).

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. We should read the expression "the true God" in John 17:3 in light of its use elsewhere in the Bible as well as in its immediate context in John. Jesus' point is not that the Father is the archetypal God from whom all other Gods are derived, but that God is only truly known in the Father whom Jesus his Son came to glorify. That God the Father cannot be known apart from the Son is a major theme in John's writings (e.g., John 1:18; 8:19; 14:6-7, 9, 23; 17:25-26; 1 John 2:23; 5:20). The parallel with 1 John 5:20 is especially significant: eternal life consists in knowing the Father as the true God and Jesus Christ (John 17:3); we know the true one in his Son Jesus Christ, and this is the true God and eternal life (1 John 5:20).
2. Ironically, critics of the Trinity often lean hard on John 17:3 to try to prove that Jesus cannot be God because the text says that the Father, as distinct from Jesus Christ, is the only true God. But this argument backfires when the "archetypal" understanding of John 17:3 is refuted, because John explicitly identifies Jesus as God (John 1:1, 18; 20:28; see IV.A.2-4 below). Although Christ humbly honors the Father in this statement as the only true God, his statement does not necessarily mean that he (Jesus) is not also God—and the explicit statements in the same Gospel prove this was not his meaning.
All other "gods" are therefore false gods (idols), not gods at all: Deut. 32:21; 1 Sam. 12:21; Ps. 96:5; Is. 37:19; 41:23-24, 29; Jer. 2:11; 5:7; 16:20; 1 Cor. 8:4; 10:19-20
Demons, not gods, are the power behind false worship: Deut. 32:17; Ps. 106:37; 1 Cor. 10:20; Gal. 4:8
How human beings are meant to be "like God"
1. The image of God indicates that man is to represent God and share his moral character, not that man can be metaphysically like God: Gen. 1:26-27; 5:1; 1 Cor. 11:7; Eph. 4:24; Col. 3:10
2. The goal of being like Christ has the following aspects only:
  1. Sharing His moral character: 1 John 3:2; Rom. 8:29.
  2. Being raised with glorified, immortal bodies like His: Phil. 3:21; 1 Cor. 15:49.
3. Becoming partakers of the divine nature refers again to moral nature ("having escaped the corruption that is in the world by lust"), not metaphysical nature: 2 Pet. 1:4; see also Heb. 12:10; on the meaning of "partakers," see 1 Cor. 10:18, 20; 2 Cor. 1:17; 1 Pet. 5:1.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. Are mighty or exalted men gods?
  1. Scripture never says explicitly that human beings are gods.
  2. Powerful, mighty men are explicitly said not to be gods: Ezek. 28:2, 9; Is. 31:3; 2 Thess. 2:4.
  3. Man and God are opposite, exclusive categories: Num. 23:19; 1 Sam. 16:7; 1 Chron. 29:1; Job 32:13; Ps. 56:4, 11; Prov. 3:4; Is. 31:3; Ezek. 28:2, 9; Hosea 11:9; Matt. 19:26; John 10:33; Acts 12:22; 1 Cor. 14:2.
  4. Moses was "as God," not really a god: Ex. 4:16; 7:1.
  5. Ezek. 32:21 speaks of warriors or soldiers as "mighty gods," but in context they are so regarded by their pagan nations, not by God or Israel; cf. Ezek. 28:2, 9
  6. The elohim before whom accused stood in Exodus was God himself, not judges, as many translations incorrectly render: Ex. 22:8-9, 28; compare Deut. 19:17.
  7. The use of elohim in Psalm 82, probably in reference to wicked judges, as cited by Jesus in John 10:34-36, does not mean that men really can be gods.
    1. It is Asaph, not the Lord, who calls the judges elohim in Ps. 82:1, 6. This is important, even though we agree that Ps. 82 is inspired.
    2. Asaph's meaning is not "Although you are gods, you will die like men," but rather "I called you gods, but in fact you will all die like the men that you really are."
    3. The Psalmist was no more saying that wicked judges were truly gods than he was saying that they were truly "sons of the Most High" (v. 6b).
    4. Thus, Ps. 82:1 calls the judges elohim in irony. They had quite likely taken their role in judgment (cf. point 6 above) to mean they were elohim, or gods, and Asaph's message is that these so-called gods were mere men who would die under the judgment of the true elohim (vss. 1-2, 7-8).
    5. Christ's use of this passage in John 10:34-36 does not negate the above interpretation of Psalm 82.
    6. The words, "The Scripture cannot be broken," in this context probably mean "the Scripture cannot go without having some ultimate fulfillment" (cf. John 7:23; Matt. 5:17). Thus Jesus is saying that what the OT judges were called in irony, he is in reality; he does what they could not do and is what they could never be (see the Adam—Christ contrasts in Rom. 5:12-21 and 1 Cor. 15:21-22, 45 for a similar use of OT Scripture).
    7. The clause, "those against whom the word of God came" (John 10:35) shows that this "word" was a word of judgment against the so-called gods; which shows that they were false gods, not really gods at all.
    8. Finally, these wicked men were certainly not "godlike" or "divine" by nature, so that in any case the use of elohim to refer to them must be seen as figurative, not literal.
  8. Even if men were gods (which they are not), this would be irrelevant to Jesus, since He was God as a preexistent spirit before creation: John 1:1.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. Are angels gods?
  1. Scripture never explicitly states that angels are gods.
  2. Demonic spirits are not gods, 1 Cor. 10:20; Gal. 4:8; thus, being "mighty spirits" does not make angels gods.
  3. Satan is therefore also a false god: 2 Cor. 4:4.
  4. Psalm 8:5 does not teach that angels are gods.
    1. Ps. 8:5 is paraphrased in Heb. 2:7, not quoted literally (for a similar example of such paraphrase, cf. Ps. 68:18 with Eph. 4:8). In Ps. 8:5, elohim certainly means God, not angels, since Ps. 8:3-8 parallels Gen. 1:1, 8, 16, 26-28. (Hebrews is here following the Septuagint, or Greek translation of the OT, in using "angels" in place of "God.") Note that the Psalmist is speaking of man's exalted place in creation, whereas Hebrews, while agreeing on man's exalted status compared to the rest of creation, applies the Psalm to speak of the lower place taken by Christ in becoming a man compared to his intrinsic status as divine. Thus, Heb. 2:7 may not mean to equate angels with gods at all (and the writer never draws that conclusion).
    2. Having argued that Christ, unlike the angels, bears the designation "God" (1:8), it would be odd for the writer to imply just several verses later that the angels were "gods" (supposedly in 2:7).
    3. Even if Heb. 2:7 did imply that angels are "gods," in the context of Hebrews 1-2 these angels would be those falsely exalted above Christ. (The focal claim of Hebrews 1-2 is that Christ is greater than all the angels.) Cf. also Rev. 19:10 and 22:8-9 on the problem of the worship of angels (as well as possibly Col. 2:18).
  5. Elsewhere in the Psalms angels, if spoken of as gods (or as "sons of the gods"), are considered false gods: Ps. 29:1; 86:8-10; 89:6; 95:3; 96:4-5; 97:7-9 (note that these false gods are called "angels" in the Septuagint); 135:5; 136:2; 138:1; cf. Ex. 15:11; 18:11; Deut. 10:17; 1 Chr. 16:25; 2 Chr. 2:5.
  6. Even if the angels were gods (which the above shows they are not), that would be irrelevant to Jesus, since He is not an angelic being, but the Son who is worshipped by the angels as their Creator, Lord, and God: Heb. 1:1-13.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. Does the plural form of Elohim refer to "gods" or "Gods"?
  1. It is true that the Hebrew word elohim (usually translated "God") is grammatically a plural form. However, when it refers to "gods" in the plural (typically false deities), elohim regularly takes plural verbs, adjectives, and pronouns (e.g., "other [pl.] gods," Ex. 20:3; Deut. 5:7; frequent in the OT; "these [pl.] are the gods," 1 Sam. 4:8; "so may the gods do [pl.] to me," 1 Kings 19:2; "you [pl.] are our gods," Is. 42:17; etc.). When it refers to the true God, the Creator, the object of Israel's proper worship, it regularly takes singular verbs, singular adjectives, and singular pronouns. For example, "created" in Genesis 1:1 is a singular verb form, despite the fact that elohim ("God") is grammatically a plural noun. Most Hebrew scholars understand this use of the plural form elohim for God to be an example of the plural of fullness (or plenitude, amplitude, etc.).
  2. The simple fact that the OT occasionally uses elohim with reference to a single pagan god, such as Ashtoreth, Chemosh, or Molech (1 Kings 11:5, 33), is sufficient to show that elohim can refer to a single deity (see also Judg. 6:31; 11:24; 16:23, 24; 1 Sam. 5:7; 1 Kings 18:24a, 25; 2 Kings 1:2, 3, 6, 16; 19:37).
  3. The Greek OT (or Septuagint) translated elohim in these contexts consistently with the singular noun theos ("God"), and when the NT quotes the OT it also uses the singular form theos (e.g., Deut. 6:13, in Matt. 4:10 and Luke 4:8; Deut. 6:16, in Matt. 4:7 and Luke 4:12; Ex. 3:6, in Matt. 22:32, Mark 12:26, and Luke 20:37; Ps. 22:1 in Matt. 27:46 and Mark 15:34; etc.).
  4. Since the plural form elohim can be used even with reference to an individual pagan deity, we should also not regard this plural form as evidence of the Trinity.
2. Conclusion: If there is only one God, one true God, all other gods being false gods, neither men nor angels being gods, and none even like God by nature—all of which the Bible says repeatedly and explicitly—then we must conclude that there is indeed only one God.
This One God Is the Single Divine Being Known in the OT as Jehovah or Yahweh ("The LORD")
1. This one God is known in the OT as Jehovah or Yahweh ("the LORD")
  1. Texts where Jehovah is said to be elohim or el: Deut. 4:35, 39; Josh. 22:34; 1 Kings 8:60; 18:21, 39; Ps. 100:3; 118:27; etc.
  2. Texts where the compound name "Jehovah God" (Yahweh Elohim) is used: Gen. 2:4-9, 15-22; 3:1, 8-9, 13-14, 21-23; 24:3; Ex. 9:30; Ps. 72:18; 84:11; Jonah 4:6
  3. Only one Yahweh/Jehovah: Deut. 6:4; Mark 12:29
  4. The Bible never speaks of "the gods" as a group that includes Yahweh; nor is creation ever credited to "gods"; nor does it ever enjoin the worship of "gods"; nor does it speak in any other way that would imply that Yahweh was one of a group of deities. In fact the Bible explicitly rejects these types of statements (e.g., Deut. 5:6-10; 6:4-5, 13; Is. 43:10; 44:6-8, 24).
  5. Conclusion: Jehovah is the only God, the only El or Elohim

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. This one God, the LORD, is one single divine being
  1. The Bible always refers to the LORD or God in the third person singular (he, his, him), never as they, and speakers in the Bible addressing God/the LORD always do so in the second person singular (you singular). Citing texts is really unnecessary because there are far too many occurrences, but see, for example, Gen. 1:5, 10; Ex. 3:6, 12-14; 20:7; Deut. 32:39; 1 Kings 18:39; Ps. 23:2-3.
  2. Whenever in the Bible the LORD or God speaks to human beings or other creatures, he always speaks of himself in the first person singular (I and my/mine, not us/we and our/ours). Of the obviously numerous examples, see the especially famous examples in Ex. 3:14; Ex. 20:2; Deut. 5:6. He says "I am the LORD" or "I am the LORD your/their God" some 164 times in the OT (especially in Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Isaiah, and Ezekiel).
  3. This conclusion cannot be circumvented by saying that there is one "Godhead" consisting of a plurality of divine beings. The word "Godhead" is equivalent to the word "Godhood" (-head is an old English suffix meaning the state or status of something, as in maidenhead, the state of being a maiden or virgin). In the English Bible it is used to translate three closely related words: theion ("divine being," Acts 17:29), theiotês ("divine nature," Rom. 1:20), and theotês ("deity," Col. 2:9). In none of these texts does "Godhead" refer to more than one divine being. The use of "Godhead" as a term for the Trinity is not found in the Bible; it is not inaccurate per se, but it must be understood as a term for a single divine being, not a group of gods.
2. However, the Bible never says that God is "one person."
  1. Heb. 1:3 KJV speaks of God's "person," but the word used here, hupostasis, is translated "substance" in Heb. 11:1 KJV; also in Heb. 1:3 "God" refers specifically to the Father.
  2. Gal. 3:20 speaks of God as one party in the covenant between God and man, not as one person.
  3. Job 13:8 KJV speaks of God's "person," but ironically the Hebrew literally means "his faces."

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. The use of plural pronouns by God in Genesis 1-11
  1. As already noted, the Bible always refers to God in the singular, and he always speaks of himself with singular pronouns (I, me, mine, my) when addressing creatures. These singular forms do not disprove that God exists as three "persons" as long as these persons are not separate beings.
  2. At least three times God speaks of or to himself using plural pronouns (Gen. 1:26; 3:22; 11:7), and nontrinitarian interpretations cannot account for these occurrences.
    1. A plural reference to God and the angels is not likely in these texts. In 1:26 "our image" is explained by the parallel in 1:27, "in God's image." In 3:22 "like one of us" refers back to 3:5, "like God." In 11:7 "let us go down and there confuse their language" is explained immediately in 11:8-9, "So the LORD [Yahweh] scattered them abroad from there … The LORD confused the language of the whole earth." Angels were evidently present when God created human beings (cf. Job 38:4-7), but the Bible never includes them as participants in creating human beings. Nor does the Bible ever speak of humans as being in the image of angels.
    2. That the plural is in some way literal is evident from 3:22 ("like one of us") and from 11:7 ("Come, let us go down"), which parallels the people's statements "Come, let us …" (11:3, 4).
    3. The "literary plural" (possibly, though never clearly, attested in Paul) is irrelevant to OT texts in which God is speaking, not writing.
    4. The "plural of deliberation" or "cohortative plural" (as in "Let's see now …") with reference to a single person is apparently unattested in biblical writings, and clearly cannot explain the plural in Gen. 3:22 ("like one of us").
    5. The "plural of amplitude" or of "fullness" (which probably does explain the use of the plural form elohim in the singular sense of "God") is irrelevant to the use of plural pronouns, and again cannot explain Gen. 3:22 and 11:7.
    6. The "plural of majesty" (the royal "we") is possibly attested in 1 Kings 12:9; 2 Chron. 10:9; more likely Ezra 4:18; but none of these is a certain use of that idiom; and again, it cannot explain Gen. 3:22 and 11:7.
  3. There are two factors that may explain why these intradivine plural pronouns occur only in Genesis 1-11.
    1. These plural pronouns express communication among the divine persons, rather than communication from God to human beings or angelic creatures.
    2. It may be significant that the use of these plural forms is reported only in Genesis 1-11, prior to the revelations to Abraham, when the focus of biblical revelation became the fostering of a monotheistic faith. The history of the OT is a history of the struggle to establish Israel as a community committed to belief in one God. In that context it would have been confusing to have referred overtly to the three divine persons of the triune God. This also explains why there is no overt revelation of the three persons in the OT.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. The uniqueness of God should prepare us for the possibility that the one divine Being exists uniquely as a plurality of persons
  1. Only one God, thus unique: see I.A
  2. None are even like God: see I.B
  3. God cannot be fully comprehended: Is. 40:18, 25; 1 Cor. 8:2-3
  4. God can be known only insofar as the Son reveals Him: Matt. 11:25-27; John 1:18
  5. Analogical language needed to describe God: Ezek. 1:26-28; Rev. 1:13-16
  6. God is transcendent, entirely distinct from and different than the universe, as the carpenter is distinct from the bench
    1. Separate from the world: Is. 40:22; Acts 17:24
    2. Contrasted with the world: Ps. 102:25-27; 1 John 2:15-17
    3. Created the world: Gen. 1:1; Ps. 33:6; 102:25; Is. 42:5; 44:24; John 1:3; Rom. 11:36; Heb. 1:2; 11:3
1. The Father of our Lord Jesus Christ is God
  1. Explicit statements: John 5:18; 6:27; 17:1, 3; 20:17; 1 Cor. 8:6; 2 John 3; etc
  2. The expression, "the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ": Rom. 15:6; 2 Cor. 1:3; Eph. 1:3; Col. 1:3; 1 Pet. 1:3; see also 2 Cor. 11:31; Eph. 1:17; Rev. 1:6
  3. (Note: No attempt is made here to argue at length for this premise of the doctrine of the Trinity, since those who profess some form of Christian faith rarely, if ever, dispute it.)

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

The Son, Jesus Christ, Is God
1. Explicit statements identifying Jesus as "God"
  1. Is. 9:6; note 10:21. Translations which render the Hebrew el gibbôr here as "mighty hero" are inconsistent in their rendering of 10:21. Also note that Ezek. 32:21, which some try to cross-reference, is (a) not in the same context, as is Is. 10:21, and (b) speaking of false gods, cf. I.G.5. Some object that "mighty God" is simply theophoric (i.e., in which a person's name says something about God, not about himself). However, this is not true of the rest of the compound name, which is descriptive of the Messiah himself (note especially "Prince of Peace"). It certainly makes no sense to argue both that the expression el gibbôr means merely "mighty hero" and that it is a theophoric description of God. In light of the NT, we should understand it as a description of the Messiah as God.
  2. John 1:1. Even if Jesus is here called "a god" (as some have argued), since there is only one God, Jesus is that God. However, the "a god" rendering is incorrect. Other NT passages using the Greek word for God (theos) in the same construction are always rendered "God": Mark 12:27; Luke 20:38; John 8:54; Phil. 2:13; Heb. 11:16. Passages in which a shift occurs from ho theos ("the God") to theos ("God") never imply a shift in meaning: Mark 12:27; Luke 20:37-38; John 3:2; 13:3; Rom. 1:21; 1 Thess. 1:9; Heb. 9:14; 1 Pet. 4:10-11. In context, the preincarnate Christ (called "the Word") is eternal (existing before creation, 1:1-2), is credited with creation (1:3, 10), is the object of faith (1:12), and has the divine glory (1:14)—all of which shows that he really is God.
  3. John 1:18. The best manuscripts have "God" here, not "Son." The word monogenês, frequently rendered "only-begotten," actually means "one of a kind," "unique," though in the NT always in the context of a son or daughter. Even if one translates "only-begotten," the idea is not of a "begotten god" as opposed to an "unbegotten god." The best translation is probably "God the only Son" (NRSV).
  4. John 20:28. Compare Rev. 4:11, in which the same author (John) uses the same construction in the plural ("our") instead of the singular ("my"). See also Ps. 35:23. Note that Christ's response indicates that Thomas's acclamation was not wrong. Also note that John 20:17 does show that the Father was Jesus' "God" (due to Jesus becoming a man), but the words "my God" as spoken by Thomas later in the same chapter must mean no less than in v. 17. Thus, what the Father is to Jesus in his humanity, Jesus is to Thomas (and therefore to us as well).

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. Acts 20:28: "the church of God which he purchased with his own blood." The variant readings (e.g. "the church of the Lord") show that the original wording was understood to mean "his own blood," not "the blood of his own [Son]" (since otherwise no one would have thought to change it). (No one seems to have thought to understand the text to mean "the blood of his own" until about a hundred years ago.) Thus all other renderings are attempts to evade the startling clarity and meaning of this passage.
2. Rom. 9:5. While grammatically this is not the only possible interpretation, the consistent form of doxologies in Scripture, as well as the smoothest reading of the text, supports the identification of Christ as "God" in this verse.
3. Titus 2:13. Grammatically and contextually, this is one of the strongest proof texts for the deity of Christ. Sharp's first rule, properly understood, proves that the text should be translated "our great God and Savior" (cf. same construction in Luke 20:37; Rev. 1:6; and many other passages). Note also that Paul always uses the word "manifestation" ("appearing") of Christ: 2 Thess. 2:8; 1 Tim. 6:14; 2 Tim. 1:10; 4:1, 8. The view that Paul means that Jesus Christ is "the glory of our great God and Savior" has several difficulties. For example, construing "Savior" as someone other than "Jesus Christ" in this context is awkward and implausible. Such alternate explanations would never have been entertained had Paul written "the appearing of the glory of our great Lord and Savior Jesus Christ." Thus, the root problem is the assumption that Paul could not have called Jesus God.
4. Heb. 1:8. The rendering, "God is your throne," is nonsense—God is not a throne, he is the one who sits on the throne! Also, "God is your throne," if taken to mean God is the source of one's rule, could be said about any angelic ruler—but Hebrews 1 is arguing that Jesus is superior to the angels.
5. 2 Pet. 1:1. The same construction is used here as in Titus 2:13; see the parallel passages in 2 Pet. 1:11; 2:20; 3:2, 18. See comments above on Titus 2:13.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. 1 John 5:20. Admittedly, biblical scholars are split on whether the "true God" in this text is the Father or the Son. Three considerations favor the Son. First, the closest antecedent for "this one" is Jesus Christ ("in his Son Jesus Christ. This one…"). Second, in 1:2 the "eternal life" is Jesus Christ (who was "with the Father"), an apparent example of inclusio (repetition of a theme or idea at the beginning and end of a text). Third, the confession form "This one is …" (houtos estin) strongly favors Jesus Christ, rather than the Father, as the subject, since John uses this language repeatedly with regard to Christ (John 1:30, 33, 34; 4:29, 42; 6:14, 42, 50, 58; 7:18, 25, 26, 40, 41; 1 John 5:6; of the man born blind, John 9:8, 9, 19, 20; of the disciple, John 21:24; of the anti-Christ, 1 John 2:22; 2 John 1:7), but not once for the Father. John has just used this formula for Christ earlier in the same chapter (1 John 5:6).
Jesus is Jehovah/Yahweh (the Lord)
1. Rom. 10:9-13: Note the repeated "for" (gar), which links these verses closely together. The "Lord" of 10:13 (where kurios, "Lord," translates the Hebrew Yahweh) must be the "Lord" of 10:9, 12.
2. Phil. 2:9-11. In context, the "name that is above every name" is "Lord" (vs. 11), i.e., Jehovah.
3. Heb. 1:10: Here God the Father addresses the Son as "Lord," in a quotation from Ps. 102:25 (cf. 102:24, where the person addressed is called "God"). Since here the Father addresses the Son as "Lord," this cannot be explained away as a text in which a creature addresses Christ as God/Lord in a merely representational sense.
4. 1 Pet. 2:3-4: This verse is nearly an exact quotation of Ps. 34:8a, where "Lord" is Jehovah. From 1 Pet. 2:4-8 it is also clear that "the Lord" in v. 3 is Jesus.
5. 1 Pet. 3:13-15: these verses are a clear reference to Is. 8:12-13, where the one who is to be regarded as holy is Jehovah.
6. Texts where Jesus is spoken of as the "one Lord" (cf. Deut. 6:4; Mark 12:29): 1 Cor. 8:6; Eph. 4:5; cf. Rom. 10:12; 1 Cor. 12:5.
7. Many other texts that call Jesus "Lord" do so in ways that equate him with Yahweh: Matt. 3:3, Mark 1:3, and Luke 3:4 (cf. Is. 40:3); Matt. 7:21-22 and Luke 6:46; Matt. 8:25 and 14:30 (cf. Ps. 118:25); Acts 1:24 (addressing the Lord Jesus [cf. v. 21] in prayer and attributing to him divine knowledge); 2:21 (cf. Joel 2:32), 36; 7:59-60; 8:25; 1 Cor. 1:2 (calling on the Lord), 8 (the day of the Lord) [etc.], 31 (cf. Jer. 9:23-24); 2:16 (cf. Is. 40:13); 4:4-5; 5:4 (gathering in the name of the Lord); 6:11; 7:17, 32-35 (devotion to the Lord); 10:21-22; etc.

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

Jesus has many other names or titles of God
1. Titles belonging only to God
  1. The First and the Last (Beginning and End, Alpha and Omega): Rev. 1:7-8, 17b-18; 2:8; 22:13; cf. Is. 41:4; 44:6; 48:12; Rev. 21:6
  2. King of kings and Lord of lords: Rev. 17:14; 19:16; cf. Dan. 4:37; 1 Tim. 6:15
2. Titles belonging in the ultimate sense only to God
  1. Savior: Luke 2:11; John 4:42; Phil. 3:20; 2 Tim. 1:10; Titus 2:13, cf. v. 10; 2 Pet. 1:11; 2:20; 3:2, 18; 1 John 4:14; cf. Is. 43:11; 45:21-22; 1 Tim. 4:10; on Jesus becoming the source of salvation; Heb. 5:9, cf. Ex. 15:2; Ps. 118:14, 21
  2. Shepherd: John 10:11; Heb. 13:20; cf. Ps. 23:1; Is. 40:11
  3. Bridegroom/Husband: Matt. 22:2; 25:1-13; Mark 2:19; John 3:29; 2 Cor. 11:2; Eph. 5:25-27; Rev. 19:7-9; 21:2, 9; cf. Is. 54:5; 62:5; Jer. 31:32
  4. Rock: 1 Cor. 10:4; cf. Is. 44:8
3. Jesus' self-declarations—his "I am" sayings
  1. Jesus' "I am" (egô eimi) sayings with a predicate declare his divine functions: "I am the bread of life" (John 6:35, 48; cf. 6:41, 51), "I am the light of the world" (John 8:12), "I am the gate" of the sheep (John 10:7, 9), "I am the good shepherd" (10:11, 14), "I am the resurrection and the life" (John 11:25), "I am the way and the truth and the life" (John 14:6), "I am the [true] vine" (John 15:1, 5). In these sayings Jesus essentially claims to be everything his people need for eternal life.
  2. Jesus' "I am" (egô eimi) sayings without a predicate declare his divine identity as the divine Son come to be the Messiah: "I am [he]; do not fear" (Matt. 14:27; Mark 6:50; John 6:20; cf. Is. 43:2, 5); "I am [he]" (Mark 14:62); "I am [he], the one speaking to you" (John 4:26, cf. Is. 52:6); "unless you believe that I am [he] you will die in your sins…then you will know that I am [he]" (John 8:24, 28, cf. Is. 43:10-11); "before Abraham came into being, I am" or "I am [he]" (John 8:58, note v. 59); "I know the ones I have chosen…you will believe that I am [he]" (John 13:18-19, cf. Is. 43:10); "I am [he]" (John 18:5, cf. vv. 6-8). Note the many parallels to the "I am" sayings of God in Isaiah, which virtually all biblical scholars agree are echoed by Jesus' "I am" sayings in John. Some scholars also see at least an indirect connection to God's declaration "I am who I am" in Ex. 3:14 (especially for John 8:58).

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. The NT gives an extraordinary emphasis on Jesus' "name," stating that it is the highest of all names, Eph. 1:21; Phil. 2:9-11; referring to it as "the Name," Acts 5:41; 3 John 7; glorifying his name, Acts 19:13-18, cf. Ps. 20:7. Christians call on his name for salvation; they get baptized and receive forgiveness of sins and eternal life in his name; they cast out demons in his name; they suffer and risk their lives for his name; they do everything in his name: Matt. 7:22; 10:22; 19:29; 24:9; Mark 9:38-39; 13:13; Luke 10:17; 21:12, 17; John 1:12; 15:21; 20:31; Acts 2:21, 36, 38; 3:6, 16; 4:7, 10, 12, 17-18, 30; 5:28; 8:16; 9:14, 21, 27-28; 10:43, 48; 15:26; 16:18; 19: 5; 21:13; 22:16; Rom. 10:12-13; 1 Cor. 1:13-15; 6:11; Col. 3:17; 1 Pet. 4:14; 1 John 2:12; 1 John 3:23; 5:13; Rev. 2:3, 13; 3:8.
Jesus received the honors due to God alone
1. Honor: John 5:23; Heb. 3:3-4
2. Love: Matt. 10:37; Luke 14:26; John 14:15, 21; 15:10; Eph. 6:24
3. Prayer: John 14:14 (the word "me" in the text is debated, but in any case it is Jesus who answers the prayer); Acts 1:24-25; 7:59-60 (cf. Luke 23:34, 46); 9:14; 22:16; Rom. 10:12-13; 1 Cor. 1:2; 16:22; 2 Cor. 12:8-10 (where "the Lord" must be Jesus, cf. v. 9); 2 Thess. 2:16-17; Rev. 22:20-21

TheLearner · May 16, 2021

1. Worship (proskuneô): Matt. 2:2, 11; 8:2; 9:18; 14:33; 15:25; 20:20; 28:9, 17 (cf. Matt. 4:9-10); Phil. 2:10-11 (cf. Is. 45:23); Heb. 1:6 (cf. Ps. 97:7); Rev. 1:17; 5:14 (cf. Rev. 19:10; 22:8-9)
2. Religious or sacred service (latreuô): Dan. 7:14; Rev. 22:1-3
3. Doxological praise: 2 Tim. 4:18; Heb. 13:20-21; 1 Pet. 4:11; 2 Pet. 3:18; Rev. 1:5-6; 5:13
4. Song: Eph. 5:19; Rev. 5:9-10; cf. Ps. 92:1; 95:1; 96:2; etc.
5. Fear/reverence: 2 Cor. 5:10-11; Eph. 5:21; 6:7-8; Col. 3:22-25; 1 Pet. 3:14-16; cf. Deut. 6:13; 10:20; Prov. 1:7; 2:5; 9:10; etc.; Is. 8:12-13
6. Faith: Matt. 9:28; John 1:12; 3:15-18, 36; 6:35, 40; 7:37-39; 8:24; 11:25-26; 14:1; 20:31; Acts 3:16; 10:43; 16:31; 20:21; 22:19; 24:24; 26:18; Rom. 9:33; 10:11; Gal. 3:26; 1 Pet. 2:6; 1 John 3:23; 5:1, 10, 13
Jesus does the works of God
1. Creation: John 1:3, 10; 1 Cor. 8:6; Col. 1:16; Heb. 1:2, 10; Rev. 3:14 (where archê probably means ruler or head); on "through" and "in" Christ, cf. Rom. 11:36; Heb. 2:10; Acts 17:28; cf. also Is. 44:24
2. Sustains the universe: Col. 1:17; Heb. 1:3, 11-12
3. Demonstrating divine sovereignty over nature: Matt. 8:23-27 par.; Matt. 14:13-33 par.; Matt. 15:32-39; Matt. 17:24-27; Mark 5:19-20; Luke 5:1-11; 7:11-16; John 2:1-11; John 21:1-14
4. Speaking with divine authority: Matt. 5:20-22, etc.; 7:24-29; 24:35; Mark 1:22; 13:31; Luke 4:32; John 4:26; 7:46; cf. "Amen I say to you" (74 times in the Gospels); "the word of the Lord," Acts 8:25; 13:44, 48-49; 15:35-36; 16:32; 19:10, 20; 1 Thess. 4:15

Who was Jesus praying to in the garden of Gethsemane?

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