What is your take here The LORD's soul (nephesh)

[4ChristAlone]

It's anthropomorphism.

The above verse's use the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) this refers to the Godhead in unity (Immanent (Ontological) Trinity). Unless you mean soul as in person hood?

You need to be careful how you switch from the substance and essence of the triune Godhead and the hypostatic union. Jesus is fully human and fully God. So in his human nature he does have a body and soul. (The verses you have shown above refers to the triune God. ''the Lord our God is one'' -YHWH).

So when referring to the Godhead in unity (YHWH), the soul referred to is Anthropomorphism. or possibly person hood. but not a separate soul. and it's not Jesus' human soul.

Hope that has helped. These things where the some of the big debates in the early church.

Alrighty, so stay away from those verses they are too dangerous for me?

 

[4ChristAlone]

Oh goodness Im feeling I am going to regret this thread

 

[4ChristAlone]

The LORDs soul is referred to as Anthropomorphism?

I cant find that, I can only find Nephesh, where is Anthropomorphism in scripture?

 

[Live4Him]

@Live4Him

Let me ask you another question are you of the understanding that one means the same or in unity, did I ask that correctly?

I am trying to learn what others mean by it verses what the scripture teach, for example

Jesus said,

I and my Father are one.

And he also prayed that we would be also (even as he and the Father are)

They may be one, even as we are one

But when he said,

I and my Father are one.

Are they saying the same one or united as one since Jesus says

I am not alone, because the Father is with me

Even as it says,

For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell

Just as he asks Philip

Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself

Is Father dwelling in Christ understood to be just Jesus by some or as Jesus said, I am not alone?

Is the oneness here understood to be the same, or is the oneness understood to be unified?

I dont know what other people think, I dont (as you know) spend much time looking over the details of what others believe about certain things, I only know their wrath of I dont feel the same way LOL

I DEFINITELY believe that the "oneness" is as in UNIFIED, and not as in a singularity.

For example, continuing on with your partial quote of John 8:16 where Jesus said "I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me", we read:

John chapter 8

[17] It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
[18] I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.

Jewish law required two or three witnesses to establish something (Deut. 17:6, 19:15).

Jesus was one witness, and the Father was the second witness.

They are one in unity.

 

[4ChristAlone]

It's anthropomorphism.

The above verse's use the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) this refers to the Godhead in unity (Immanent (Ontological) Trinity). Unless you mean soul as in person hood?

You need to be careful how you switch from the substance and essence of the triune Godhead and the hypostatic union. Jesus is fully human and fully God. So in his human nature he does have a body and soul. (The verses you have shown above refers to the triune God. ''the Lord our God is one'' -YHWH).

So when referring to the Godhead in unity (YHWH), the soul referred to is Anthropomorphism. or possibly person hood. but not a separate soul. and it's not Jesus' human soul.

Hope that has helped. These things where the some of the big debates in the early church.

Can you point out which verses you are speaking about when you say, Tetragrammaton (YHWH)

I have no clue what that means lol

 

[4ChristAlone]

I DEFINITELY believe that the "oneness" is as in UNIFIED, and not as in a singularity.

For example, continuing on with your partial quote of John 8:16 where Jesus said "I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me", we read:

John chapter 8

[17] It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
[18] I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.

Jewish law required two or three witnesses to establish something (Deut. 17:6, 19:15).

Jesus was one witness, and the Father was the second witness.

They are one in unity.

Thats how I am catching it, but when I read others speak on being one that is not the impression I am getting, as its the same one as with Adam and Eve, he made the two one.

Thank you little feller

 

[Live4Him]

Thats how I am catching it, but when I read others speak on being one that is not the impression I am getting, as its the same one as with Adam and Eve, he made the two one.

Thank you little feller

Yes.

He made the two one, and God also said that "the people is one" at the tower of Babel (Gen. 11:6), as in unified in purpose.

I mean, obviously (although not necessarily on this forum), when Jesus prayed that we would be one as he and the Father are one, he wasn't praying that we would become God. Instead, he was praying that we would never act independently of God, but rather in unison or unity with him.

 

[ankagirl]

Here's Psalm 11 in its entirety:

Psalm 11

[1] In the LORD put I my trust: How say ye to my soul, Flee as a bird to your mountain?
[2] For, lo, the wicked bend their bow, they make ready their arrow upon the string, that they may privily shoot at the upright in heart.
[3] If the foundations be destroyed, what can the righteous do?
[4] The LORD is in his holy temple, the LORD's throne is in heaven: his eyes behold, his eyelids try, the children of men.
[5] The LORD trieth the righteous: but the wicked and him that loveth violence his soul hateth.
[6] Upon the wicked he shall rain snares, fire and brimstone, and an horrible tempest: this shall be the portion of their cup.
[7] For the righteous LORD loveth righteousness; his countenance doth behold the upright.

Again, sometimes "the LORD" (Jehovah) refers to God the Father in the Old Testament, and sometimes it refers to Jesus Christ.

In verse 4, we see the LORD in his holy temple, and we read about his throne, but that could pertain to either the Father or Jesus.

In verse 6, we read of how the LORD shall rain snares and fire and brimstone upon the wicked, and this could also pertain to either the Father or Jesus.

In verse 7, we read how the LORD loves righteousness, and this could also rightly apply to either the Father or Jesus.

In either case, one of them has a "soul" (vs. 5), so the verse does apply to your overall point, but I cannot tell you with certainty whether it applies to the Father or Jesus in context.

Do you happen to use the KJV? Just curious, ‘cause I use it myself. 😊

 

[Roughsoul1991]

Fully in what way just in respects that we know he was with God in the beginning and was God and was made flesh and that he is the same in that respect? Because on another level he did say he could do nothing of himself, so he emptied himself and did everything through His Father.

See I have trouble understanding what fully means, why do people use that word.

John 1
New International Version
The Word Became Flesh
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.
9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God.
14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

 

[Live4Him]

Do you happen to use the KJV? Just curious, ‘cause I use it myself. 😊

Yes.

I've been reading the KJV for 32 1/2 years now.

 

[4ChristAlone]

Yes.

He made the two one, and God also said that "the people is one" at the tower of Babel (Gen. 11:6), as in unified in purpose.

I mean, obviously (although not necessarily on this forum), when Jesus prayed that we would be one as he and the Father are one, he wasn't praying that we would become God. Instead, he was praying that we would never act independently of God, but rather in unison or unity with him.

I know, thats why I chuckle at that one when its insisted upon as being the same, it begs the question to the absurd

 

[Roughsoul1991]

And let me clarify he created the worlds so its hard to believe he is NOT divine, May never imparted that to him (he created her) and he was made flesh also so its hard to believe he was not a man either. When I ask about the word "fully" I mean in full strength (by himself) to be able to act upon above a man (in his incarnate position)

Did I say that right? I know I have to be careful because I could lose my head if I misstep on a word and be doomed here LOL

God is a personal God. Which means God attributes personal characteristics that we also possess as mankind. God has many names, He is called a living God, makes a distinction between death and life, beast and man, God's characteristics can also be seen in man through love, anger, jealousy, or sadness like when Jesus wept. Through Jesus God literally walked with man and experienced everything as man. He took the incarnate form of a human. God is spoken of in male gender words like Father or Son.

The book of John testifies to the Godhead of Jesus.

 

[4ChristAlone]

John 1
New International Version
The Word Became Flesh
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.
9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God.
14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

I know all of this I was just asking about the fully part seeing he emptied himself taking on our humanity and was living through His Father in his flesh, so Jesus' own "fully" I guess I dont get since that is how he did all things by the Father dwelling in him.

 

[4ChristAlone]

God is a personal God. Which means God attributes personal characteristics that we also possess as mankind. God has many names, He is called a living God, makes a distinction between death and life, beast and man, God's characteristics can also be seen in man through love, anger, jealousy, or sadness like when Jesus wept. Through Jesus God literally walked with man and experienced everything as man. He took the incarnate form of a human. God is spoken of in male gender words like Father or Son.

The book of John testifies to the Godhead of Jesus.

I know it speaks of the Godhead here

Col 1:19 For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;

And as we know,

Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

 

[Roughsoul1991]

I know all of this I was just asking about the fully part seeing he emptied himself taking on our humanity and was living through His Father in his flesh, so Jesus' own "fully" I guess I dont get since that is how he did all things by the Father dwelling in him.

Colossians 2:9-10
New King James Version
9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead [a]bodily; 10 and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all [b]principality and power.

Footnotes

1. Colossians 2:9 in bodily form
2. Colossians 2:10 rule and authority

 

[Roughsoul1991]

I know all of this I was just asking about the fully part seeing he emptied himself taking on our humanity and was living through His Father in his flesh, so Jesus' own "fully" I guess I dont get since that is how he did all things by the Father dwelling in him.

Well it was also Jesus as fully man to battle the weakness of the flesh while giving Himself entirely to the Spirit.

 

[phil36]

Can you point out which verses you are speaking about when you say, Tetragrammaton (YHWH)

I have no clue what that means lol

(And yet you know full well what you are meaning by your OP?)


The answer is. Them all except one, the context of one of the verses implies Lordship of Jesus (that's a clue lol).

It's good you and live4him are good friends you both joined basically on the same date.. That's pretty cool

 

[4ChristAlone]

Colossians 2:9-10
New King James Version
9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead [a]bodily; 10 and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all [b]principality and power.

Footnotes

1. Colossians 2:9 in bodily form
2. Colossians 2:10 rule and authority

Yes it pleased the Father that in Jesus should all fulness dwell

Col 1:19 For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;

Its this understood to be speaking of Jesus own fulness that the Father was pleased should dwell in him?

 

[4ChristAlone]

Well it was also Jesus as fully man to battle the weakness of the flesh while giving Himself entirely to the Spirit.

I do understand this part a little better (fully human) the reason I have reservations on the fully God (as far as his own part) versus the Fathers is that the Father dwelled in Jesus (he was not alone) whatever the Father commanded he spake that he spoke, what he saw his father do that he did, his judgment was true he said for the Father was with him, he did his works by the Father but he said he could nothing of himself, he did not speak of himself, his doctrine was not His either. So when someone says FULLY God I attribute that more to the indwelling Father by nature of the strength he drew upon, even as ate of His Father. So on his part (as the divine Son) and with God in the Begining as the Word, I am not catching fully him coming in his own strength but the strength of His father. Thats what I mean by it. His full capacity before his incarnation.

 

[Live4Him]

(And yet you know full well what you are meaning by your OP?)


The answer is. Them all except one, the context of one of the verses implies Lordship of Jesus (that's a clue lol).

It's good you and live4him are good friends you both joined basically on the same date.. That's pretty cool

She and I have known each other for many years (somewhere between 10 and 15, I think). She's the one who recommended this forum to me. I'll never forgive her for that...lol.