What examples of double fulfillments of prophecy exists in the OT alone?
That being one prophecy with two fulfillments with in the Hebrew Scriptures Only.
That being one prophecy with two fulfillments with in the Hebrew Scriptures Only.
What examples of double fulfillments of prophecy exists in the OT alone?
- Thread starter TheLearner
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
How does a double fulfillment work? Never heard of the idea. Interested, though.
The basic claim is the prophecy is fulfilled in immediate context then has a second fulfillment elsewhere in Scripture.
In that case, there is the reception of the Promised Holy Land, but that always points to Eternal Life in Heaven.
In another thread, someone brought up what was written in Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. (link)How does a double fulfillment work? Never heard of the idea. Interested, though.
TheLearner stated the prophecy was fulfilled at the time as "the woman back then was already pregnant" (link).
then it was pointed out certain information concerning prophecy in Scripture:
link
link
TheLearner then asked for examples of "double fulfillment" in the OT alone (link).
When asked why OT alone, TheLearner indicated "Logically if there was not double fulfillment in the OT, then claiming it happened in the NT is just wishful thinking" (link)
response to TheLearner statement concerning fulfillment occurring in NT is "just wishful thinking" (link)
I believe it was the discussion in the other thread which led TheLearner to post the OP in this thread.
[*hint: in reading the links provided in this post, if you right click on the link and select "open Link in New Tab" or "open Link in New Window", you will be able to follow this post ... as well as read through the posts in the other thread.]
When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and calledmy son out of Egypt. Hos.11:1
Hosea was talking about Israel, not a messianic prophecy. Matthew was quoting from Memory.
He was thinking about Jesus leaving Egypt and thought about a similar situation.
Hosea 11
Easy-to-Read Version
Israel Has Forgotten the Lord
11 The Lord said, “I loved Israel when he was a child,
and I called my son out of Egypt.
2 But the more I[a] called the Israelites,
the more they left me.
The Israelites gave sacrifices to the false gods
and burned incense to the idols.
3 “But I was the one who taught Ephraim to walk.
I took the Israelites in my arms.
I healed them,
but they don’t know that.
4 I led them with ropes,[c]
but they were ropes of love.
I was like a person who set them free.[d]
I bent down and fed them.
Hosea 11
King James Version
11 When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt.
2 As they called them, so they went from them: they sacrificed unto Baalim, and burned incense to graven images.
3 I taught Ephraim also to go, taking them by their arms; but they knew not that I healed them.
Matthew 2:15
King James Version
15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.
As you know Hosea 11 was talking about Israel, not the Messiah. Nothing in the text demonstrates that it was a messianic prophecy.
context matters.
King James Version
15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.
As you know Hosea 11 was talking about Israel, not the Messiah. Nothing in the text demonstrates that it was a messianic prophecy.
context matters.
Matthew 2:15, in the inspired text of the New Testament book of Matthew, clealy states that Hosea was prophesying about Jesus. A clear example of a double prophecy. Not because man says it is: but because God says it is in the inspired OT and NT text.
It would be interesting if someone can find a double prophecy in the OT alone, but I am not sure what is the point of the discussion. OT and NT are equally inspired.
And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.
The text in Matthew only says he is quoting from a prophet. A better translation for "fulfilled" is "completed".
Book of Hosea written around
II. DATE :790-686 B.C.
https://bible.org/article/introduction-book-hosea
Date of Exodus was around 1450 BC
https://www.google.com/search?q=dat...hUKEwjDzvm0ne_xAhXS7Z4KHVteBmoQ4dUDCA4&uact=5
Thus Hosea was speaking about History, not even a prophecy. One can not have dual fulfillment of a prophecy that is history, not a prophecy.
Matthew 2:15: And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.
Check the OT prophets to see who said this: There is only one clear quote: in Hosea 11:1
Hosea 11: 1: When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.
End of discussion: Case closed!
You said Hosea was speaking about history, not prophecy: He said it was spoken by "the prophet":
Hosea 11:1 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.
ever heard of typology friend. Hosea was not even giving a prophecy in the text. The exodus was history when Hosea was written.
"Pardes" refers to (types of) approaches to biblical exegesis in rabbinic Judaism or to interpretation of text in Torah study. The term, sometimes also rendered PaRDeS, is an acronym formed from the initials of the following four approaches:
Peshat (פְּשָׁט) – "surface" ("straight") or the literal (direct) meaning.[1]
Remez (רֶמֶז) – "hints" or the deep (allegoric: hidden or symbolic) meaning beyond just the literal sense.
Derash (דְּרַשׁ) – from Hebrew darash: "inquire" ("seek") – the comparative (midrashic) meaning, as given through similar occurrences.
Sod (סוֹד) (pronounced with a long O as in 'lore') – "secret" ("mystery") or the esoteric/mystical meaning, as given through inspiration or revelation.
Each type of Pardes interpretation examines the extended meaning of a text.
I lost the link, too many pages open.
Peshat (פְּשָׁט) – "surface" ("straight") or the literal (direct) meaning.[1]
Remez (רֶמֶז) – "hints" or the deep (allegoric: hidden or symbolic) meaning beyond just the literal sense.
Derash (דְּרַשׁ) – from Hebrew darash: "inquire" ("seek") – the comparative (midrashic) meaning, as given through similar occurrences.
Sod (סוֹד) (pronounced with a long O as in 'lore') – "secret" ("mystery") or the esoteric/mystical meaning, as given through inspiration or revelation.
Each type of Pardes interpretation examines the extended meaning of a text.
I lost the link, too many pages open.