I agree, technically you have a point.
However, to me, rebellion gives the false impression that there will be some kind of revolt in the street, when it's actually a gradual brainwashing of people so they think they're doing things of their own free will but they're being controlled and manipulated by Satan.
You won't see the mass of Christianity out in the street with clubs and swords crying for Bibles to be burned. No, they'll be sitting passively, listening to false teachers and giving their hearty consent.
Let's try to bring this back to your original point of the thread. I agree with you. "Rebellion" is not a good word to use here. In english "rebellion", means to rebel or buck-up against something. Mankind, in their fallen state, have always been in rebellion against God. So this verse must mean something more immediate, something related to the end.
Other Bibles, not mentioned in your post, translated it this way:
2Th 2:3 let no man beguile you in any wise: for it will not be, except the falling away come first, and the man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition, (ASV & RV).
2Th 2:3 let no man deceive you in any way: for that day will not come, unless the rebellion come first, and the man of lawlessness be revealed, the son of perdition, (RSV)
Marshall, renders it
"apostacy" in the Nestle Greek text. Therefore, he gives it no expressed meaning but renders the word as is.
None of these translations do harm to the text but can we find the most common meaning in Scripture? A search of the Greek word and it's variants, turns up this information. The particular inflected form used here:
ἀποστασία is only found in this verse. Other forms are found in 3 other verses. They are listed below in English then the Greek. The RED highlight, pairs the English with the Greek word. All English translations are KJV:
Mat 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Mat_19:7 λέγουσιν αὐτῷ· τί οὖν Μωσῆς ἐνετείλατο δοῦναι βιβλίον ἀποστασίου καὶ ἀπολῦσαι αὐτήν;
Mar 10:4 And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away.
Mar_10:4 οἱ δὲ εἶπαν· ἐπέτρεψε Μωϋσῆς βιβλίον ἀποστασίου γράψαι καὶ ἀπολῦσαι.
Act 21:21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Act_21:21 κατηχήθησαν δὲ περὶ σοῦ ὅτι ἀποστασίαν διδάσκεις ἀπὸ Μωϋσέως τοὺς κατὰ τὰ ἔθνη πάντας ᾿Ιουδαίους, λέγων μὴ περιτέμνειν αὐτοὺς τὰ τέκνα μηδὲ τοῖς ἔθεσι περιπατεῖν.
So now we can see, that the translators have used several different English words to express the meaning of:
ἀποστάσιον.
However, one thing becomes clear, the primary meaning of this word is: "to separate from" or "to forsake". In Matthew and Mark, it is a separation of a husband from his wife. In Acts, it is the separation from a teaching of Moses.
Therefore, I would conclude, that here in second Thessalonians, the verse should read like this:
2Th 2:3 let no man deceive you in any way: for it will not be, except the separation come first, and the man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition, (mine).
By interpretation, this verse means the separation from the Truth of God's Word to something that is a lie. This "separation" could be forced on one by heretical teaching or by that ones "forsaking" the Truth or both. But since this does not read well, grammatically, in English - I would stay with this version as best and closest to the meaning.
2Th 2:3 let no man beguile you in any wise: for it will not be, except the falling away come first, and the man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition, (ASV & RV).
Thought you might enjoy this study. I know I did and thank you for bringing up the subject.