Technically, the man of sin is revealed before the Coming of the Lord. Nowhere does Scripture claim at the Beginning, but it does claim more towards the middle.
Really? You sure about that? and that it's not just what you are assuming to be the case?
It's not till midpoint we see the False Prophet ordering to take the Mark.
I think most of us
agree with that point.
It is possible we Believers and Followers of God could recognize the man of sin before he is revealed, but Scripture does not make such a claim.
Yeah, I do not see such a thing at all
[meaning... distinct points in time for those ^ . No.]
But it sounds as though you are just saying, "[It is possible]...
recognize the man of sin before he
is revealed [with his being "
revealed"
MORE TOWARDS THE MIDDLE]"... when no Scripture declares that he is "revealed"
towards the middle (in any of those passages I listed, among others)
Where are you suggesting that Scripture makes the claim that he is "
revealed"
more towards the middle?
Aren't you just assuming that 2Th2:
4,
as a part of that "middle," is the point in time when he is [also]
"revealed"?
To say, many of us see this at the Beginning, does not align with Scripture, but there is also no Scripture that tells us we won't be able to recognize him before he is revealed.
You're simply saying this as though operating under the assumption that he
will be "revealed"
more towards the middle... but Scripture does not make such a claim. You've merely assumed it to be true (and I acknowledge that many others also assume the same, and then mindlessly repeat the matter as though it is fact).
Your post is one that cannot be proven in any way. And honestly, I don't see not why that we won't be able to recognize him before he is revealed. But that is solely based upon the "could be" factor, not an actual fact.
This whole section ^ is your saying this,
based on the assumption that he is "
revealed"
more towards the middle, as you said at top (in your quote above).
Why is what
I said considered by you as a
"could be" (assumption), but not what you've assumed to be the case: that he is "
revealed"
more towards the middle?
In my viewpoint, as I mentioned, the various texts covering this Subject have connecting points at the "BEGINNING" (of the 7 years)... [same for "MIDDLE" and "END" points]... and at the "BEGINNING" is (
among a number of passages including Paul's 1Th5:1-3 / 2Th2:3b,9a,8a,[6b]): that
the SEALS [think: Seal #1 especially]
are equivalent to "the BEGINNING of birth PANGS" [think:
Matt24:4 /
Mk13:5 especially, as the first of those: "G5100 -
tis -
A CERTAIN ONE [
'a certain one' bringing deception]"];
IOW, Paul in 2Th2 is covering the entire 7-year period, and not merely 3.5 years of it (per 2Th2:4), in what he is saying in that passage (not to mention the previous chpt also);
...additionally, in Scripture, elsewhere, wherever the phrases "the day of the Lord" and "IN THAT DAY"
are used in close proximity, they are speaking of the
SAME TIME PERIOD... and such is also the case in Paul's
2Th2 chpt and his 2Th1 chpt, where these two phrases are again used in close proximity, speaking of the
SAME "future" time period (the time period in which the "man of sin" will exist, to do ALL he is slated to DO... in those "7 years"... not merely in 3.5 yrs)... There's more, but I realize ppl can only read and take in so much in a post...
...but I would say that I see more "reasoning" (from Scripture) in my viewpoint, than I see coming from your viewpoint (and believe me, I've considered it way longer than merely the brief time we've been discussing it in this thread
)
Glad for the convo... hope to be back later, but I'm on a tight schedule so I can't promise anything = )
1
