You have brought up Proverbs and asked your question in that context.
That portion of Proverbs is written in the context of instructions from a father to a son.
8Hear, my son, your father’s instruction,
and forsake not your mother’s teaching,
9for they are a graceful garland for your head
and pendants for your neck.
10My son, if sinners entice you,
do not consent. ...
So if he had a daughter he was writing to it would have been presented in that context and would have warned her about how to avoid the ungodly man out to lead her astray from the paths of life...
The instructions that were given in these verses can apply to either man or woman when understood that they are about how to avoid sin.
The ungodly woman in Proverbs is a personfication of foolishness, or folly, as in willful sin and wickedness. It is contrasted with the godly woman of WISDOM or fearing God and following the scriptures.
Much of the bible uses the male form of him, or man, but we know it means all humans male and female.
For example all of the instructions given to the young man about how to live righteously and avoid sin apply to both man and woman, and when it uses the example of an ungodly woman trying to entice him, the same could be said for an ungodly man trying to entice a woman. Why does it not use that example? Only because the book is written as if it is a Father instructing a son, and there was no need to make another book about a Father instructing a daughter in which all the exact same things would have been said except for the different situations like telling her to turn down the mans advances in whatever way it was that men tried to lure women to bed in those days which we all know full well that they did.
No need for another example with different gender roles because it would end up saying the exact same thing which is why both man and woman can follow the instructions of proverbs just fine.
That portion of Proverbs is written in the context of instructions from a father to a son.
8Hear, my son, your father’s instruction,
and forsake not your mother’s teaching,
9for they are a graceful garland for your head
and pendants for your neck.
10My son, if sinners entice you,
do not consent. ...
So if he had a daughter he was writing to it would have been presented in that context and would have warned her about how to avoid the ungodly man out to lead her astray from the paths of life...
The instructions that were given in these verses can apply to either man or woman when understood that they are about how to avoid sin.
The ungodly woman in Proverbs is a personfication of foolishness, or folly, as in willful sin and wickedness. It is contrasted with the godly woman of WISDOM or fearing God and following the scriptures.
Much of the bible uses the male form of him, or man, but we know it means all humans male and female.
For example all of the instructions given to the young man about how to live righteously and avoid sin apply to both man and woman, and when it uses the example of an ungodly woman trying to entice him, the same could be said for an ungodly man trying to entice a woman. Why does it not use that example? Only because the book is written as if it is a Father instructing a son, and there was no need to make another book about a Father instructing a daughter in which all the exact same things would have been said except for the different situations like telling her to turn down the mans advances in whatever way it was that men tried to lure women to bed in those days which we all know full well that they did.
No need for another example with different gender roles because it would end up saying the exact same thing which is why both man and woman can follow the instructions of proverbs just fine.
-
3
-
1
- Show all
