B
Blackson
Guest
On John 2:4, we read that Jesus addressed His mother as "woman". Could not He use another way of addressing His own mother? Or what can we speak of such an incident?
Rainacorn is absolutely correct. When Jesus began his ministry, he basically transcended his humanity and became something more. He, himself, demonstrated this in the Book of Matthew, while he was addressing a crowd of believers.
"While Jesus was still talking to the crowd, his mother and brothers stood outside, wanting to speak to him. Someone told him, 'Your mother and brothers are standing outside, wanting to speak to you.' He replied to him, 'Who is my mother, and who are my brothers?' Pointing to his disciples, he said, 'Here are my mother and my brothers. For whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother.'” (Matthew 12:46-50)
He reinforced this concept in a response to Peter, when the apostle pointed out that they (they apostles) had left everything to follow Him.
“'Truly I tell you,' Jesus said to them, 'no one who has left home or wife or brothers or sisters or parents or children for the sake of the kingdom
of God will fail to receive many times as much in this age, and in the age to come eternal life.'” (Luke 18:29)
Scripture is full of instances where believers are cautioned to place their relationship with God above everything else, including their own families. In conclusion, I don't believe that Jesus was showing his mother disrespect. I think that He was just reflecting the reality of the situation.
It's interesting that while on the cross Jesus said to John "here is your mother" indicating Mary; and said to Mary "here is your son" indicating John. How sweet.
Though you wonder where all of Jesus' half brothers and sisters were and why John was given the care of Mary. Probably because they were not believers at the time?
On John 2:4, we read that Jesus addressed His mother as "woman". Could not He use another way of addressing His own mother? Or what can we speak of such an incident?
good one dscherck...i do the same to my mom, i call her woman lol once he got baptized he became more than just a man, the son of God, remember, God didn't claim Jesus his son until he Got Baptized....So he was of higher authority than Mary
He was a single child. Mary had no other children, else they would be taking care of her.
Um... pretty sure this is biblically incorrect.
As for the question, I think things get lost in translation/culture - addressing Mary as Woman may seem offensive in our culture but in Hebrew culture it may not have been.
Just offering a thought.
eh Dscherck can we please not put that mary was a perpetual virgin in here? Other than the fact it's not true.. but I know you wanna support the theory that she was the immaculate conception (free of sin from birth) but you're mistaken .. Jesus is the ONLY one w/o sin.. so enough already!
Jesus was, is, and always will be the Son of God. Jesus IS God. To deny any of that is well... heretical. You should be careful with the idea that Jesus wasn't claimed until He was baptized. It was not revealed to the public who He was until that moment, but that's a far step away from saying that He wasn't claimed at the Son until that moment.
There's no where in Scripture that shows she had other children. And we have the united testimony of the entire Christian church, including the early Protestants who all declared that Mary, the mother of Our Lord was a perpetual virgin. The idea that she is not is a new teaching that is a tradition of men.
And this has no real bearing on the concept of the Immaculate Conception. Why would I bring this up?
On John 2:4, we read that Jesus addressed His mother as "woman". Could not He use another way of addressing His own mother? Or what can we speak of such an incident?