We’ll, let’s look at 1 Corinthians 13 in context…
Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away.
For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when
that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away.
When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things.
For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known.
And now abide faith, hope, love, these three; but
the greatest of these is love.
1 Corinthians 13:8-13 -
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=1 Corinthians 13:8-13&version=NKJV
I agree that the Word of God is PERFECT but, that’s not what Paul is referring to in 1 Corinthians 13.
It’s Love, GOD’S PERFECT LOVE in us. For when He (Jesus Christ the PERFECT ONE) appears, we shall appear also just like Him.
That hasn’t happened yet….so, NONE of the gifts of the Holy Spirit have ceased but they will when God’s Perfect Love is fully in us….at Christ’s return.
This text is not that difficult. That which is perfect is come means when we see him face to face. We won't need the Gifts in that day.
@GRACE_ambassador
8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.
9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
This is not about when the last book of the Bible (Revelation was written) It is not possible that Paul was referring to the New Testament there is no indication that Paul had any idea that he was even writing the New Testament. He was referring to the time when we will see him Face to face. Now we know in part, but then we will be perfect.
We know that is what Paul was talking about because he spoke of this event of perfection that he was looking forward to in another passage. If you want to find another verse where this "that which is perfect is come" might be mentioned, you wouldn't start with a verse by another author in the old testament that refers to the scripture as perfect. You would look to see if Paul had spoken about this thing before. And he did.
As you can see in Phil 3: Paul tells us that in his mind that which is perfect is when he attains the resurrection from the dead
8Yea doubtless, and I count all things
but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them
but dung, that I may win Christ,
9And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
10That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the fellowship of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death;
11If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead.
2Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
So here we have an example where the same writer of 1 Cor 13 has mentioned before that he is looking forward to a state where he will attain perfection post ressurrection of the dead. Therefore we can conclude that what Paul had in mind when he said that when that which is perfect is come was that state of perfection post resurrection when we will see him FACE TO FACE (1 Cor 13:12) and we will know in full and not in part and in that day we will not need to operate in the gift of tongues and have an interpretation of tongues, nor will we need to have a word of knowledge, word of wisdom, or prophesy as these are all the gifts that are ordained to help us now, while we are in this state of imperfection and partial knowledge but not needed when we are in that state of perfection post resurrection and see him Face to Face.
If you Google "what is the interpretation of "that which is perfect is come" you will find plenty of scholarly articles explaining why applying that to when the last book of the New Testament was written is a horrible hermeneutic that all scholars but a few reject. What I mean is that all your non pentecostal evangelical scholars who are indeed self described cessationist and believe that the gifts have ceased because we don't need them since we have the Word of God believe that because of other reasons than this passage. They believe that the way I just explained it is the correct interpretation. They base their view on why the gifts have ceased on other reasons than this passage and do not believe it is intellectually honest to force an interpretation of that which is perfect is come to the writing of the New Testament as being what Paul was trying to communicate because we know it was not.
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