Why I'm Not A Big Fan of The KJV.

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S

Seeking-Christ

Guest
#1
There are some people who use the KJV that I respect. However the language used in the KJV is so archaic that I think it causes some people to come up with strange ideas. And with all the twisted ideas... It almost makes no sense to use something that is maybe only a little more accurate from time to time. None of the English versions of the bible have got it translated perfectly. It's impossible to translate from one language to another without having some problems.

Whenever people quote me something from the KJV, I almost never understand what they are saying. I often times haft to waste time, rereading it about 5 times before I understand it. But if it works for you, then more power to you! But Please don't use it with me, or you will probably not get a response from me! Since I can't understand what your saying anyways.
 

Artios1

Born again to serve
Dec 11, 2020
668
400
63
#2
I have the exact same problem …. Contrarywise….. So I know it’s frustrating.

I use KJV because that is what I started out with, and I am used to it…and I really do have trouble when people quote me from a updated English version…it just makes no sense.

Two other reasons I use KJV is ….it is the only bible without a copyright (per se) and therefore is the peoples Bible.

The other reason is ….most of the added words are in italic.
 

arthurfleminger

Well-known member
Aug 18, 2021
1,405
771
113
#3
There are some people who use the KJV that I respect. However the language used in the KJV is so archaic that I think it causes some people to come up with strange ideas. And with all the twisted ideas... It almost makes no sense to use something that is maybe only a little more accurate from time to time. None of the English versions of the bible have got it translated perfectly. It's impossible to translate from one language to another without having some problems.

Whenever people quote me something from the KJV, I almost never understand what they are saying. I often times haft to waste time, rereading it about 5 times before I understand it. But if it works for you, then more power to you! But Please don't use it with me, or you will probably not get a response from me! Since I can't understand what your saying anyways.
I'm not a fan of the King James version of the Bible because it wasn't a religious rewrite of the Bible, instead it was motivated by politics. In 1604, England's King James I authorized a new translation of the Bible aimed at settling some thorny religious differences in his kingdom—and solidifying his own power. This version of the Bible was edited to serve King James purposes and not God's.

Thus this version of the Bible had little to do with establishing the truth of God's Word, instead it was written for the benefit of King James and his word.
 
S

Seeking-Christ

Guest
#4
The only argument that I have ever heard that I consider worthy of in favor of the King James is maybe that the manuscripts came from Antioch. However the other manuscripts they found are older. Older is often considered to be better, because it gets closer to the earliest texts. All that stuff gets over my head. While I was trying to fact check myself, i found this link.

https://www.chick.com/information/article?id=how-to-show-those-who-refuse-kjo
 

arthurfleminger

Well-known member
Aug 18, 2021
1,405
771
113
#5
The King James Bible was written to support King James Politics and enhance his power and it was not written to support the Word of God.

Furthermore, the King James Bible is just a human interpretation of the Bible and it contains errors. These errors crept in to the KJV Bible because the translators, picked by King James to produce an English version of God's word, "read into" certain texts their own biases, prejudices and long held church doctrines. This inaccurate method of Bible interpretation is known as Eisegesis.

Here's a partial list of the errors in the King James Bible:

1. THE NAME OF GOD HAS BEEN REMOVED AND REPLACED WITH "LORD" ABOUT 6,800 TIMES.

2. MATTHEW 28:19 TRANSLATORS INJECTED THEIR TRINITARIAN DOCTRINES INTO THIS PARTICULAR VERSE... "BAPTIZING THEM IN MY NAME" BECAME "BAPTIZING THEM IN THE NAME OF THE FATHER, AND OF THE SON, AND OF THE HOLY GHOST."

3. THE ALEPH TAV WAS REMOVED FROM THE ORIGINAL TEXTS ABOUT 9000 TIMES.

4. “TRANSLATORS” INTRODUCED THE TECHNIQUE OF ITALICIZING CERTAIN WORDS AND PHRASES TO INDICATE WHAT THEY HAD INSERTED INTO THE GREEK TEXTS.

5. MATTHEW 11:13 "UNTIL JOHN"... THE SHEM TOV HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW HAS IT AS “PROPHESIED ABOUT JOHN” INSTEAD OF “PROPHESIED UNTIL JOHN.”

6. MATTHEW 24:24 "IF IT WERE POSSIBLE" IS ADMITTEDLY AN INSERTION.

7. THE WORD “LAW” IN THE NEW TESTAMENT IS THE GREEK WORD “NOMOS”, WHICH DOES MEAN “LAW”. UNFORTUNATELY FOR THIS PRACTICE, HOWEVER, THAT SAME WORD IN THE HEBREW TANAKH IS THE HEBREW WORD “TORAH”, WHICH MEANS “TEACHING” OR “INSTRUCTION”.

8. IN THE 1769 KING JAMES VERSION “NEW TESTAMENT”, THE WORD “DEVIL” APPEARS 113 TIMES, BUT ONLY IN 38 OF THOSE TIMES IS THE UNDERLYING GREEK WORD DIABOLOS, WHICH IS THE ACTUAL GREEK WORD FOR “DEVIL”.

9. FOR CHRIST IS THE END OF THE LAW FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS TO EVERY ONE THAT BELIEVES. ROMANS 10:4 -KJV THIS IS A PERFECT EXAMPLE OF THE WILLFUL CORRUPTION BY THE “TRANSLATORS” OF THE CLEAR INTENT OF THE AUTHORS OF THE RENEWED COVENANT SCRIPTURES (“NEW TESTAMENT”) THE WORD “TRANSLATED” AS “END” IS TELOS, STRONG’S G5056, THE PRIMARY MEANING OF WHICH IS GOAL , RESULT, OR PURPOSE.

10. THE WORD EASTER IN ACTS 12:4 IS A PAGAN HOLIDAY DEDICATED TO THE FALSE GODDESS ASTARTE. BUT THE WORD TRANSLATED HERE BY THE KJV IS THE GREEK PASCHA, WHICH ALWAYS AND EVERYWHERE ELSE MEANS “PASSOVER.”

11. THE NAME "JESUS." WELL, THE LETTER “J” WAS NOT EVEN USED UNTIL SOMETIME AFTER 1524, SO, WHATEVER THE LORD’S ACTUAL NAME WAS, IT SURELY WAS NOT “JESUS”.

12. JOHN 12:32 THE WORD "MEN" IS ITALICIZED, INDICATING THAT IT IS INDEED, AN INSERTION, WHERE THERE IS NO WORD IN THE GREEK. THIS IS JUST ANOTHER EXAMPLE OF THE “TRANSLATORS” INSERTING THEIR OWN IDEAS INTO SCRIPTURE.

13. MATTHEW 1:17 SAYS THERE ARE 14 GENERATIONS FROM BABYLON TO CHRIST, BUT AS RECORDED IN THE KING JAMES BIBLE, THERE ARE ONLY THIRTEEN GENERATIONS.

14. MATTHEW 23:3 ACCORDING TO THIS, YESHUA IS COMMANDING THE JEWS TO OBEY THE SCRIBES AND PHARISEES. BUT HE THEN GOES ON TO LIST SOME OF THE MAJOR REASONS WHY THEY SHOULD NOT BE OBEYED. THIS SHOULD HAVE SAID, “ALL THEREFORE WHATSOEVER HE (MOSES) BIDS YOU OBSERVE, THAT OBSERVE AND DO.” AND IT APPEARS EXACTLY THAT WAY IN THE SHEM TOV HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW.

15. MATTHEW 5:34 "SWEAR NOT AT ALL." THE PROBLEM IS THAT THIS CONTRADICTED BY THE COMMANDMENTS OF HIS FATHER! THESE ARE FOUND IN LEVITICUS 19:12 AND DEUTERONOMY 23:23, AND BOTH PROHIBIT, NOT SWEARING, BUT SWEARING FALSELY.

16. MATTHEW 28:1 THE WORDS “AFTER THE SABBATH” SHOULD BE AT THE END OF MATTHEW 27:66- THE GUARDS WERE PLACE AT THE TOMB AFTER THE HIGH SABBATH. MANY CHURCHES USE THIS VERSE TO JUSTIFY A SUNSET TO SUNSET WAY OF KEEPING TIME- WHICH IS A BABYLONIAN CUSTOM.

17. THE PHRASE “FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK” APPEARS 8 TIMES IN THE NT- AND IN GREEK IS “MIA TON SABBATON” WHICH MEANS “ONE OF THE SABBATHS”- IT IS NOT TALKING ABOUT SUNDAY.

18. 2 SAMUEL 21:19 SAYS THAT ELHANAN THE SON OF JAARE-OREGIM THE BETHLEHEMITE KILLED GOLIATH- NOT DAVID. OBVIOUSLY, A COPYING ERROR, ELHANAN KILLED GOLIATH'S BROTHER.

19. 1 CHRONICLES 21:1 USES THE WORD SATAN INSTEAD OF GOD- WHICH CONFUSES MANY PEOPLE WHO ARE UNAWARE THAT SATAN IS JUST A WORD FOR AN OPPOSER, OR AN ADVERSARY. AT THIS TIME, GOD WAS OPPOSING DAVID.

20. GENESIS 1:2 SHOULD READ "AND THE EARTH BECAME WITHOUT FORM . . . ." THE WORD TRANSLATED "WAS" IS HAYAH, AND DENOTES A CONDITION DIFFERENT THAN A FORMER CONDITION, AS IN GENESIS 19:26.

21. GENESIS 10:9 SHOULD READ " . . . NIMROD THE MIGHTY HUNTER IN PLACE OF [IN OPPOSITION TO] THE LORD." THE WORD "BEFORE" IS INCORRECT AND GIVES THE CONNOTATION THAT NIMROD WAS A GOOD GUY, WHICH IS FALSE.

22. LEVITICUS 16:8, 10, 26 IN THE KJV IS "SCAPEGOAT" WHICH TODAY HAS THE CONNOTATION OF SOMEONE WHO IS UNJUSTLY BLAMED FOR OTHER'S SINS. THE HEBREW IS AZAZEL, WHICH MEANS- "ONE REMOVED OR SEPARATED." 23. 2 KINGS 2:

23, SHOULD BE "YOUNG MEN" NOT "LITTLE CHILDREN."

24. EZEKIEL 20:25 SHOULD READ "WHEREFORE I PERMITTED THEM, OR GAVE THEM OVER TO, [FALSE] STATUTES THAT ARE NOT GOOD, AND JUDGMENTS WHEREBY THEY SHOULD NOT LIVE." GOD'S LAWS ARE GOOD, PERFECT AND RIGHT. THIS VERSE SHOWS THAT SINCE ISRAEL REJECTED GOD'S LAWS, HE ALLOWED THEM TO HURT THEMSELVES BY FOLLOWING FALSE MAN MADE CUSTOMS AND LAWS.

25. JOHN 1:17 IS ANOTHER INSTANCE OF A POOR PREPOSITION. "BY" SHOULD BE "THROUGH": "FOR THE LAW WAS GIVEN BY [THROUGH] MOSES . . . ." MOSES DID NOT PROCLAIM HIS LAW, BUT GOD'S LAW.

26. HEBREWS 4:9 SHOULD READ, "THERE REMAINETH THEREFORE A KEEPING OF A SABBATH TO THE PEOPLE OF GOD."

27. IN PSALMS 81:4, "WAS" IS TOTALLY UNCALLED FOR AND NOT IN THE ORIGINAL HEBREW. NEW MOONS ARE STILL A STATUTE OF GOD.

28. IN LUKE 3:23-38, THE ITALICIZED WORDS "THE SON" ARE NOT IN THE ORIGINAL GREEK. ACTUALLY, LUKE GIVES THE FLESHLY DESCENT OF THE SAVIOR THROUGH MARY, WHILE MATTHEW GIVES THE LEGAL DESCENT THROUGH JOSEPH.

29. I JOHN 2:23 HAS "[BUT] HE THAT ACKNOWLEDGETH THE SON HATH THE FATHER ALSO" IN ITALICS. THIS IS AN ADDITION BASED UPON THE LATIN TEXT AND NOT IN THE ORIGINAL GREEK.

30. MARK 16:9 DOES NOT SAY THAT JESUS WAS RESURRECTED SUNDAY MORNING. THERE IS A MISSING IMPLIED COMMA BETWEEN "RISEN" AND "EARLY" AND THERE SHOULD BE NO COMMA AFTER WEEK AS THE KJV HAS IT: "NOW WHEN JESUS WAS RISEN EARLY THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK, HE APPEARED FIRST TO MARY MAGDALENE . ." THUS, IT SHOULD SAY, "NOW WHEN YESHUA WAS RISEN, EARLY ON ONE OF THE SABBATHS, HE APPEARED FIRST TO MARY MAGDALENE . .
 
S

Seeking-Christ

Guest
#6
The King James Bible was written to support King James Politics and enhance his power and it was not written to support the Word of God.

Furthermore, the King James Bible is just a human interpretation of the Bible and it contains errors. These errors crept in to the KJV Bible because the translators, picked by King James to produce an English version of God's word, "read into" certain texts their own biases, prejudices and long held church doctrines. This inaccurate method of Bible interpretation is known as Eisegesis.

Here's a partial list of the errors in the King James Bible:

1. THE NAME OF GOD HAS BEEN REMOVED AND REPLACED WITH "LORD" ABOUT 6,800 TIMES.

2. MATTHEW 28:19 TRANSLATORS INJECTED THEIR TRINITARIAN DOCTRINES INTO THIS PARTICULAR VERSE... "BAPTIZING THEM IN MY NAME" BECAME "BAPTIZING THEM IN THE NAME OF THE FATHER, AND OF THE SON, AND OF THE HOLY GHOST."

3. THE ALEPH TAV WAS REMOVED FROM THE ORIGINAL TEXTS ABOUT 9000 TIMES.

4. “TRANSLATORS” INTRODUCED THE TECHNIQUE OF ITALICIZING CERTAIN WORDS AND PHRASES TO INDICATE WHAT THEY HAD INSERTED INTO THE GREEK TEXTS.

5. MATTHEW 11:13 "UNTIL JOHN"... THE SHEM TOV HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW HAS IT AS “PROPHESIED ABOUT JOHN” INSTEAD OF “PROPHESIED UNTIL JOHN.”

6. MATTHEW 24:24 "IF IT WERE POSSIBLE" IS ADMITTEDLY AN INSERTION.

7. THE WORD “LAW” IN THE NEW TESTAMENT IS THE GREEK WORD “NOMOS”, WHICH DOES MEAN “LAW”. UNFORTUNATELY FOR THIS PRACTICE, HOWEVER, THAT SAME WORD IN THE HEBREW TANAKH IS THE HEBREW WORD “TORAH”, WHICH MEANS “TEACHING” OR “INSTRUCTION”.

8. IN THE 1769 KING JAMES VERSION “NEW TESTAMENT”, THE WORD “DEVIL” APPEARS 113 TIMES, BUT ONLY IN 38 OF THOSE TIMES IS THE UNDERLYING GREEK WORD DIABOLOS, WHICH IS THE ACTUAL GREEK WORD FOR “DEVIL”.

9. FOR CHRIST IS THE END OF THE LAW FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS TO EVERY ONE THAT BELIEVES. ROMANS 10:4 -KJV THIS IS A PERFECT EXAMPLE OF THE WILLFUL CORRUPTION BY THE “TRANSLATORS” OF THE CLEAR INTENT OF THE AUTHORS OF THE RENEWED COVENANT SCRIPTURES (“NEW TESTAMENT”) THE WORD “TRANSLATED” AS “END” IS TELOS, STRONG’S G5056, THE PRIMARY MEANING OF WHICH IS GOAL , RESULT, OR PURPOSE.

10. THE WORD EASTER IN ACTS 12:4 IS A PAGAN HOLIDAY DEDICATED TO THE FALSE GODDESS ASTARTE. BUT THE WORD TRANSLATED HERE BY THE KJV IS THE GREEK PASCHA, WHICH ALWAYS AND EVERYWHERE ELSE MEANS “PASSOVER.”

11. THE NAME "JESUS." WELL, THE LETTER “J” WAS NOT EVEN USED UNTIL SOMETIME AFTER 1524, SO, WHATEVER THE LORD’S ACTUAL NAME WAS, IT SURELY WAS NOT “JESUS”.

12. JOHN 12:32 THE WORD "MEN" IS ITALICIZED, INDICATING THAT IT IS INDEED, AN INSERTION, WHERE THERE IS NO WORD IN THE GREEK. THIS IS JUST ANOTHER EXAMPLE OF THE “TRANSLATORS” INSERTING THEIR OWN IDEAS INTO SCRIPTURE.

13. MATTHEW 1:17 SAYS THERE ARE 14 GENERATIONS FROM BABYLON TO CHRIST, BUT AS RECORDED IN THE KING JAMES BIBLE, THERE ARE ONLY THIRTEEN GENERATIONS.

14. MATTHEW 23:3 ACCORDING TO THIS, YESHUA IS COMMANDING THE JEWS TO OBEY THE SCRIBES AND PHARISEES. BUT HE THEN GOES ON TO LIST SOME OF THE MAJOR REASONS WHY THEY SHOULD NOT BE OBEYED. THIS SHOULD HAVE SAID, “ALL THEREFORE WHATSOEVER HE (MOSES) BIDS YOU OBSERVE, THAT OBSERVE AND DO.” AND IT APPEARS EXACTLY THAT WAY IN THE SHEM TOV HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW.

15. MATTHEW 5:34 "SWEAR NOT AT ALL." THE PROBLEM IS THAT THIS CONTRADICTED BY THE COMMANDMENTS OF HIS FATHER! THESE ARE FOUND IN LEVITICUS 19:12 AND DEUTERONOMY 23:23, AND BOTH PROHIBIT, NOT SWEARING, BUT SWEARING FALSELY.

16. MATTHEW 28:1 THE WORDS “AFTER THE SABBATH” SHOULD BE AT THE END OF MATTHEW 27:66- THE GUARDS WERE PLACE AT THE TOMB AFTER THE HIGH SABBATH. MANY CHURCHES USE THIS VERSE TO JUSTIFY A SUNSET TO SUNSET WAY OF KEEPING TIME- WHICH IS A BABYLONIAN CUSTOM.

17. THE PHRASE “FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK” APPEARS 8 TIMES IN THE NT- AND IN GREEK IS “MIA TON SABBATON” WHICH MEANS “ONE OF THE SABBATHS”- IT IS NOT TALKING ABOUT SUNDAY.

18. 2 SAMUEL 21:19 SAYS THAT ELHANAN THE SON OF JAARE-OREGIM THE BETHLEHEMITE KILLED GOLIATH- NOT DAVID. OBVIOUSLY, A COPYING ERROR, ELHANAN KILLED GOLIATH'S BROTHER.

19. 1 CHRONICLES 21:1 USES THE WORD SATAN INSTEAD OF GOD- WHICH CONFUSES MANY PEOPLE WHO ARE UNAWARE THAT SATAN IS JUST A WORD FOR AN OPPOSER, OR AN ADVERSARY. AT THIS TIME, GOD WAS OPPOSING DAVID.

20. GENESIS 1:2 SHOULD READ "AND THE EARTH BECAME WITHOUT FORM . . . ." THE WORD TRANSLATED "WAS" IS HAYAH, AND DENOTES A CONDITION DIFFERENT THAN A FORMER CONDITION, AS IN GENESIS 19:26.

21. GENESIS 10:9 SHOULD READ " . . . NIMROD THE MIGHTY HUNTER IN PLACE OF [IN OPPOSITION TO] THE LORD." THE WORD "BEFORE" IS INCORRECT AND GIVES THE CONNOTATION THAT NIMROD WAS A GOOD GUY, WHICH IS FALSE.

22. LEVITICUS 16:8, 10, 26 IN THE KJV IS "SCAPEGOAT" WHICH TODAY HAS THE CONNOTATION OF SOMEONE WHO IS UNJUSTLY BLAMED FOR OTHER'S SINS. THE HEBREW IS AZAZEL, WHICH MEANS- "ONE REMOVED OR SEPARATED." 23. 2 KINGS 2:

23, SHOULD BE "YOUNG MEN" NOT "LITTLE CHILDREN."

24. EZEKIEL 20:25 SHOULD READ "WHEREFORE I PERMITTED THEM, OR GAVE THEM OVER TO, [FALSE] STATUTES THAT ARE NOT GOOD, AND JUDGMENTS WHEREBY THEY SHOULD NOT LIVE." GOD'S LAWS ARE GOOD, PERFECT AND RIGHT. THIS VERSE SHOWS THAT SINCE ISRAEL REJECTED GOD'S LAWS, HE ALLOWED THEM TO HURT THEMSELVES BY FOLLOWING FALSE MAN MADE CUSTOMS AND LAWS.

25. JOHN 1:17 IS ANOTHER INSTANCE OF A POOR PREPOSITION. "BY" SHOULD BE "THROUGH": "FOR THE LAW WAS GIVEN BY [THROUGH] MOSES . . . ." MOSES DID NOT PROCLAIM HIS LAW, BUT GOD'S LAW.

26. HEBREWS 4:9 SHOULD READ, "THERE REMAINETH THEREFORE A KEEPING OF A SABBATH TO THE PEOPLE OF GOD."

27. IN PSALMS 81:4, "WAS" IS TOTALLY UNCALLED FOR AND NOT IN THE ORIGINAL HEBREW. NEW MOONS ARE STILL A STATUTE OF GOD.

28. IN LUKE 3:23-38, THE ITALICIZED WORDS "THE SON" ARE NOT IN THE ORIGINAL GREEK. ACTUALLY, LUKE GIVES THE FLESHLY DESCENT OF THE SAVIOR THROUGH MARY, WHILE MATTHEW GIVES THE LEGAL DESCENT THROUGH JOSEPH.

29. I JOHN 2:23 HAS "[BUT] HE THAT ACKNOWLEDGETH THE SON HATH THE FATHER ALSO" IN ITALICS. THIS IS AN ADDITION BASED UPON THE LATIN TEXT AND NOT IN THE ORIGINAL GREEK.

30. MARK 16:9 DOES NOT SAY THAT JESUS WAS RESURRECTED SUNDAY MORNING. THERE IS A MISSING IMPLIED COMMA BETWEEN "RISEN" AND "EARLY" AND THERE SHOULD BE NO COMMA AFTER WEEK AS THE KJV HAS IT: "NOW WHEN JESUS WAS RISEN EARLY THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK, HE APPEARED FIRST TO MARY MAGDALENE . ." THUS, IT SHOULD SAY, "NOW WHEN YESHUA WAS RISEN, EARLY ON ONE OF THE SABBATHS, HE APPEARED FIRST TO MARY MAGDALENE . .
WoW You really attack the KJV. You make me look like a very small person with this. haha
 

arthurfleminger

Well-known member
Aug 18, 2021
1,405
771
113
#7
The King James Bible was written to support King James Politics and enhance his power and it was not written to support the Word of God.

Furthermore, the King James Bible is just a human interpretation of the Bible and it contains errors. These errors crept in to the KJV Bible because the translators, picked by King James to produce an English version of God's word, "read into" certain texts their own biases, prejudices and long held church doctrines. This inaccurate method of Bible interpretation is known as Eisegesis.

Here's a partial list of the errors in the King James Bible:

1. THE NAME OF GOD HAS BEEN REMOVED AND REPLACED WITH "LORD" ABOUT 6,800 TIMES.

2. MATTHEW 28:19 TRANSLATORS INJECTED THEIR TRINITARIAN DOCTRINES INTO THIS PARTICULAR VERSE... "BAPTIZING THEM IN MY NAME" BECAME "BAPTIZING THEM IN THE NAME OF THE FATHER, AND OF THE SON, AND OF THE HOLY GHOST."

3. THE ALEPH TAV WAS REMOVED FROM THE ORIGINAL TEXTS ABOUT 9000 TIMES.

4. “TRANSLATORS” INTRODUCED THE TECHNIQUE OF ITALICIZING CERTAIN WORDS AND PHRASES TO INDICATE WHAT THEY HAD INSERTED INTO THE GREEK TEXTS.

5. MATTHEW 11:13 "UNTIL JOHN"... THE SHEM TOV HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW HAS IT AS “PROPHESIED ABOUT JOHN” INSTEAD OF “PROPHESIED UNTIL JOHN.”

6. MATTHEW 24:24 "IF IT WERE POSSIBLE" IS ADMITTEDLY AN INSERTION.

7. THE WORD “LAW” IN THE NEW TESTAMENT IS THE GREEK WORD “NOMOS”, WHICH DOES MEAN “LAW”. UNFORTUNATELY FOR THIS PRACTICE, HOWEVER, THAT SAME WORD IN THE HEBREW TANAKH IS THE HEBREW WORD “TORAH”, WHICH MEANS “TEACHING” OR “INSTRUCTION”.

8. IN THE 1769 KING JAMES VERSION “NEW TESTAMENT”, THE WORD “DEVIL” APPEARS 113 TIMES, BUT ONLY IN 38 OF THOSE TIMES IS THE UNDERLYING GREEK WORD DIABOLOS, WHICH IS THE ACTUAL GREEK WORD FOR “DEVIL”.

9. FOR CHRIST IS THE END OF THE LAW FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS TO EVERY ONE THAT BELIEVES. ROMANS 10:4 -KJV THIS IS A PERFECT EXAMPLE OF THE WILLFUL CORRUPTION BY THE “TRANSLATORS” OF THE CLEAR INTENT OF THE AUTHORS OF THE RENEWED COVENANT SCRIPTURES (“NEW TESTAMENT”) THE WORD “TRANSLATED” AS “END” IS TELOS, STRONG’S G5056, THE PRIMARY MEANING OF WHICH IS GOAL , RESULT, OR PURPOSE.

10. THE WORD EASTER IN ACTS 12:4 IS A PAGAN HOLIDAY DEDICATED TO THE FALSE GODDESS ASTARTE. BUT THE WORD TRANSLATED HERE BY THE KJV IS THE GREEK PASCHA, WHICH ALWAYS AND EVERYWHERE ELSE MEANS “PASSOVER.”

11. THE NAME "JESUS." WELL, THE LETTER “J” WAS NOT EVEN USED UNTIL SOMETIME AFTER 1524, SO, WHATEVER THE LORD’S ACTUAL NAME WAS, IT SURELY WAS NOT “JESUS”.

12. JOHN 12:32 THE WORD "MEN" IS ITALICIZED, INDICATING THAT IT IS INDEED, AN INSERTION, WHERE THERE IS NO WORD IN THE GREEK. THIS IS JUST ANOTHER EXAMPLE OF THE “TRANSLATORS” INSERTING THEIR OWN IDEAS INTO SCRIPTURE.

13. MATTHEW 1:17 SAYS THERE ARE 14 GENERATIONS FROM BABYLON TO CHRIST, BUT AS RECORDED IN THE KING JAMES BIBLE, THERE ARE ONLY THIRTEEN GENERATIONS.

14. MATTHEW 23:3 ACCORDING TO THIS, YESHUA IS COMMANDING THE JEWS TO OBEY THE SCRIBES AND PHARISEES. BUT HE THEN GOES ON TO LIST SOME OF THE MAJOR REASONS WHY THEY SHOULD NOT BE OBEYED. THIS SHOULD HAVE SAID, “ALL THEREFORE WHATSOEVER HE (MOSES) BIDS YOU OBSERVE, THAT OBSERVE AND DO.” AND IT APPEARS EXACTLY THAT WAY IN THE SHEM TOV HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW.

15. MATTHEW 5:34 "SWEAR NOT AT ALL." THE PROBLEM IS THAT THIS CONTRADICTED BY THE COMMANDMENTS OF HIS FATHER! THESE ARE FOUND IN LEVITICUS 19:12 AND DEUTERONOMY 23:23, AND BOTH PROHIBIT, NOT SWEARING, BUT SWEARING FALSELY.

16. MATTHEW 28:1 THE WORDS “AFTER THE SABBATH” SHOULD BE AT THE END OF MATTHEW 27:66- THE GUARDS WERE PLACE AT THE TOMB AFTER THE HIGH SABBATH. MANY CHURCHES USE THIS VERSE TO JUSTIFY A SUNSET TO SUNSET WAY OF KEEPING TIME- WHICH IS A BABYLONIAN CUSTOM.

17. THE PHRASE “FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK” APPEARS 8 TIMES IN THE NT- AND IN GREEK IS “MIA TON SABBATON” WHICH MEANS “ONE OF THE SABBATHS”- IT IS NOT TALKING ABOUT SUNDAY.

18. 2 SAMUEL 21:19 SAYS THAT ELHANAN THE SON OF JAARE-OREGIM THE BETHLEHEMITE KILLED GOLIATH- NOT DAVID. OBVIOUSLY, A COPYING ERROR, ELHANAN KILLED GOLIATH'S BROTHER.

19. 1 CHRONICLES 21:1 USES THE WORD SATAN INSTEAD OF GOD- WHICH CONFUSES MANY PEOPLE WHO ARE UNAWARE THAT SATAN IS JUST A WORD FOR AN OPPOSER, OR AN ADVERSARY. AT THIS TIME, GOD WAS OPPOSING DAVID.

20. GENESIS 1:2 SHOULD READ "AND THE EARTH BECAME WITHOUT FORM . . . ." THE WORD TRANSLATED "WAS" IS HAYAH, AND DENOTES A CONDITION DIFFERENT THAN A FORMER CONDITION, AS IN GENESIS 19:26.

21. GENESIS 10:9 SHOULD READ " . . . NIMROD THE MIGHTY HUNTER IN PLACE OF [IN OPPOSITION TO] THE LORD." THE WORD "BEFORE" IS INCORRECT AND GIVES THE CONNOTATION THAT NIMROD WAS A GOOD GUY, WHICH IS FALSE.

22. LEVITICUS 16:8, 10, 26 IN THE KJV IS "SCAPEGOAT" WHICH TODAY HAS THE CONNOTATION OF SOMEONE WHO IS UNJUSTLY BLAMED FOR OTHER'S SINS. THE HEBREW IS AZAZEL, WHICH MEANS- "ONE REMOVED OR SEPARATED." 23. 2 KINGS 2:

23, SHOULD BE "YOUNG MEN" NOT "LITTLE CHILDREN."

24. EZEKIEL 20:25 SHOULD READ "WHEREFORE I PERMITTED THEM, OR GAVE THEM OVER TO, [FALSE] STATUTES THAT ARE NOT GOOD, AND JUDGMENTS WHEREBY THEY SHOULD NOT LIVE." GOD'S LAWS ARE GOOD, PERFECT AND RIGHT. THIS VERSE SHOWS THAT SINCE ISRAEL REJECTED GOD'S LAWS, HE ALLOWED THEM TO HURT THEMSELVES BY FOLLOWING FALSE MAN MADE CUSTOMS AND LAWS.

25. JOHN 1:17 IS ANOTHER INSTANCE OF A POOR PREPOSITION. "BY" SHOULD BE "THROUGH": "FOR THE LAW WAS GIVEN BY [THROUGH] MOSES . . . ." MOSES DID NOT PROCLAIM HIS LAW, BUT GOD'S LAW.

26. HEBREWS 4:9 SHOULD READ, "THERE REMAINETH THEREFORE A KEEPING OF A SABBATH TO THE PEOPLE OF GOD."

27. IN PSALMS 81:4, "WAS" IS TOTALLY UNCALLED FOR AND NOT IN THE ORIGINAL HEBREW. NEW MOONS ARE STILL A STATUTE OF GOD.

28. IN LUKE 3:23-38, THE ITALICIZED WORDS "THE SON" ARE NOT IN THE ORIGINAL GREEK. ACTUALLY, LUKE GIVES THE FLESHLY DESCENT OF THE SAVIOR THROUGH MARY, WHILE MATTHEW GIVES THE LEGAL DESCENT THROUGH JOSEPH.

29. I JOHN 2:23 HAS "[BUT] HE THAT ACKNOWLEDGETH THE SON HATH THE FATHER ALSO" IN ITALICS. THIS IS AN ADDITION BASED UPON THE LATIN TEXT AND NOT IN THE ORIGINAL GREEK.

30. MARK 16:9 DOES NOT SAY THAT JESUS WAS RESURRECTED SUNDAY MORNING. THERE IS A MISSING IMPLIED COMMA BETWEEN "RISEN" AND "EARLY" AND THERE SHOULD BE NO COMMA AFTER WEEK AS THE KJV HAS IT: "NOW WHEN JESUS WAS RISEN EARLY THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK, HE APPEARED FIRST TO MARY MAGDALENE . ." THUS, IT SHOULD SAY, "NOW WHEN YESHUA WAS RISEN, EARLY ON ONE OF THE SABBATHS, HE APPEARED FIRST TO MARY MAGDALENE . .

In short, the King James version of the Bible is King James' word, produced for his own purposes. It wasn't produced to represent God's Word in truth. Make no doubt that the translators that King James used had to toe the King's line in what they wrote. A lot of politics went into the King James version of the Bible.
 
S

Seeking-Christ

Guest
#8
In short, the King James version of the Bible is King James' word, produced for his own purposes. It wasn't produced to represent God's Word in truth. Make no doubt that the translators that King James used had to toe the King's line in what they wrote. A lot of politics went into the King James version of the Bible.
I still think God used it in an amazing way, when it was almost the only thing that the English speaking people had.
 

arthurfleminger

Well-known member
Aug 18, 2021
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#9
I still think God used it in an amazing way, when it was almost the only thing that the English speaking people had.
That's okay, just keep in mind that when you read the KJV, you are reading King James word and what he wanted his minions to write for his own political/power purposes. Don't confuse the words of the KIV with the original Bible.
 
S

Seeking-Christ

Guest
#10
That's okay, just keep in mind that when you read the KJV, you are reading King James word and what he wanted his minions to write for his own political/power purposes. Don't confuse the words of the KIV with the original Bible.
I use an audio bible that is read from the NIV. But you know, some people would take issue with that too.
 

arthurfleminger

Well-known member
Aug 18, 2021
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#11
Sorry to disappoint, but the KVJ Bible was a political tract meant to solidify the Kings power and solidarity. It was never aimed at transcribing and interpreting the true Word of God.

It's not God's Word at all, but King James and his mininion's word.
 

Artios1

Born again to serve
Dec 11, 2020
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#12
The KJ was a version that was hastily put together using several late MMS ....There are no totally accurate versions, but that is why we work the Word. There are several errors in the KJV, but we have the resources today on line to check and verify the scripture.

Another thing that needs addressing is punctuation. I can think of three places off-hand where commas that were added that altered the entire account.....a number of places where the verse was divided in the middle of a sentence....One of the most obvious errors was chapter division in Genesis 1 which should end in 2:3 and chapter 2 should start in verse 2:4.
There are many things.... but all in all there is nothing that is life (salvation) altering.... and we should be thankful for what we have.
 

Rosemaryx

Senior Member
May 3, 2017
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#13
A story I heard once about a man , raising his sons from the KJV , and noticed after four years they were hardly growing , lack of understanding...He told his pastor this , and the pastor said " Let them read from another translation " so the man did , and he noticed that his sons were growing leaps and bounds from the Word from another translation...
God is good , all the time , His word will not come back void Amen...
...xox...