just to clarify, I understand fully that the context demands the masculine gender. That is NOT what I am asking. What I want to know is if one wished to argue from a point of grammar that since τίς is indefinite, this could also imply women, what possible argument could they make? Forget for a moment that the remainder of the text even exists and focus just on the phrase εἴ τίς ἐστιν ἀνέγκλητος.