What Does It Mean That God Desires All People To Be Saved?
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That action was called love...for God so loved...He gave...Love does require action to be love. I'm asking if desire requires action to be genuine.
The all men is who Timothy is to pray for. It also includes kings who generally aren't saved. So from context I would say you are wrong.
God did, and does, love us. His desire is for all men to be saved. Through the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, the means for God's desire to come to pass is in place. It is each person's free will decision to accept what God has made available, or to reject it. God honors each person's decision.
Calvinism is false.
You're missing the point.
For someone to love, action is required. That's what John 3:16 and the story of the good Samaritan teach. My question is if desire also must have a requisite action or not biblically.
God did act on His desire. His requisite action was that He sent Jesus Christ, making it possible and available for all men to be saved.
If you think I'm missing the point, please explain how.
What do you think the answer to your question is?
For love to be love it requires an action. That's the point of the story of the good Samaritan. The one who loved his neighbour not only had compassion but acted on behalf of another. God also was compelled to act on behalf of the world if He loves the world. And so He has.
The impetus for the action isn't desire...it is love. John 3:16 doesn't say that God desired that all men be saved so He sent His Son. It says He loved so He sent His Son.
If you return to the OP the question never dealt with love...only desire. And the only question was whether or not a desire requires an action to be a desire.
While I do believe love requires God to act, I don't believe desire does.
People seem to conflate desire and love. I'm asking whether there is biblical evidence that desire requires action. It's readily available when it comes to love. I've yet to find it concerning desire.
Do you know of any verses or portions of scripture that make this clear?
Can you simplify the distinction between love and desire? It might help to arrive at this understanding.
Can it then be assumed that God does not desire some men (and their kind) be saved? And, since there is no way around faith for salvation, then the "some" are those that do not believe, rather than those he does not love? Or should we assume that He does not love those that are not saved?
If a person desires something, he will usually take steps to appropriate it to himself.
God desires something, and He took steps so that His desire can come to pass.
A person can desire that a particular person will fall in love with them, but he cannot make it happen.
Because God loves people, He desires that people become saved. He made it possible for people to live with Him forever. God wants everyone to be saved so they can live with Him forever, but He cannot make it happen.
He gave people free will, and He honors people's choices.
1 Timothy 2:4 says God desires ALL men to be saved. I think if you take this at face value then it means all men. So that would leave 0 who He doesn't desire to be saved. And my only question is, are there any scriptures that say God must act on this desire.
All your succeeding questions are fine to consider, but go beyond the scope of what I'm asking. Do you know of any scriptures that suggest that God need act upon His desires?
I'm not arguing whether or not one can take steps to fulfill their desires...only if God must.
I'm looking for scriptural evidence that requires God to act upon His desires. Do you know of any scriptures that deal with this?
He did. He sent Jesus Christ.
I know you know this, but basically the entire Bible is about God's plan of salvation.
Keeping in mind the philosophy that a suggestion that anyone "ought" to do anything contains the implication that there is provided an inherent ability to "can," James 1:19-21 suggests that God leaves men the choice, to fulfill His desires.
Hearing and Doing
19My beloved brothers, understand this: Everyone should be quick to listen, slow to speak, and slow to anger, 20for man’s anger does not bring about the righteousness that God desires. 21Therefore, get rid of all moral filth and every expression of evil, and humbly accept the word planted in you, which can save your souls.
Yes, He did send His Son. But the Bible clearly teaches that He did that because of love, not desire. I can find verses that require love to act. Can you tell me of any that show that desire must act?
If you mention love, you have gone beyond the scope of my question. I'm only interested in desire.
I don't have a vested interest in any conclusion. I don't care what the answer is. I only want to know if there are verses that require God to act on His desires.
I believe God is omnipotent so it's not a matter of ability.