Why does 1 Timothy 4:10 say that Jesus is the "savior of ALL people"?

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Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
60,137
29,452
113
#2
1 Timothy 4:10
To this end we labor and strive, because we have set our hope on the living
God, who is the Savior of everyone, and especially of those who believe.

 
May 8, 2023
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#4
1 Timothy 4:10
To this end we labor and strive, because we have set our hope on the living
God, who is the Savior of everyone, and especially of those who believe.
Does Jesus actually save everyone?
 
May 8, 2023
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#6
The shed righteous blood of Jesus Christ is sufficient to save all but effective only unto those who believe.
Ok, so Paul was wrong and he should have said that Jesus only saves those who believe. I presume we can throw out everything else that Paul wrote, right?
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
60,137
29,452
113
#7
Ok, so Paul was wrong and he should have said that Jesus only saves those who
believe. I presume we can throw out everything else that Paul wrote, right?
I would not interpret it that way at all... for God gives grace to all. However, as Scripture testifies:

He gives us more grace. This is why it says: “God opposes the proud, but gives grace to the humble.”
 

ThyKingdomComeSoon

Well-known member
Apr 1, 2023
974
596
93
#11
Here is the commentary of Albert Barnes on this verse; I hope it helps.

1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach - In making this truth known, that all might be saved, or that salvation was offered to all. The “labor” was chiefly experienced in carrying this intelligence abroad among the Gentiles; the “reproach” arose chiefly from the Jews for doing it.
Because we trust in the living God - This does not mean, as our translation would seem to imply, that he labored and suffered “because” he confided in God, or that this was the “reason” of his sufferings, but rather that this trust in the living God was his “support” in these labors and trials. “We labor and suffer reproach, for we have hope in God. Through him we look for salvation. We believe that he has made this known to people, and believing this, we labor earnestly to make it known, even though it be attended with reproaches.” The sentiment is, that the belief that God has revealed a plan of salvation for all people, and invites all people to be saved, will make his friends willing to “labor” to make this known, though it be attended with reproaches.
Who is the Saviour of all men - This must be understood as denoting that he is the Saviour of all people in some sense which differs from what is immediately affirmed - “especially of those that believe.” There is something pertaining to “them” in regard to salvation which does not pertain to “all men.” It cannot mean that he brings all people to heaven, “especially” those who believe - for this would be nonsense. And if he brings all people actually to heaven, how can it be “especially” true that he does this in regard to those who believe? Does it mean that he saves others “without” believing? But this would be contrary to the uniform doctrine of the Scriptures; see Mar 16:16. When, therefore, it is said that he “is the Saviour of ‘all’ people, ‘especially’ of those who believe,” it must mean that there is a sense in which it is true that he may be called the Saviour of all people, while, at the same time, it is “actually” true that those only are saved who believe. This may be true in two respects:
(1) As he is the “Preserver” of people Job 7:20, for in this sense he may be said to “save” them from famine, and war, and peril - keeping them from day to day; compare Psa 107:28;
(2) As he has “provided” salvation for all people. He is thus their Saviour - and may be called the common Saviour of all; that is, he has confined the offer of salvation to no one class of people; he has not limited the atonement to one division of the human race; and he actually saves all who are willing to be saved by him.
(See supplementary note on 2Co 5:21. This passage however is not regarded a proof text now on the extent of the atonement, as the fair rendering of σωτήρ sōtēr is “Preserver.” Dr. Wardlaw has accordingly excluded it in his recent work.)
Specially of those that believe - This is evidently designed to limit the previous remark. If it had been left there, it might have been inferred that he would “actually save” all people. But the apostle held no such doctrine, and he here teaches that salvation is “actually” limited to those who believe. This is the speciality or the uniqueness in the salvation of those who actually reach heaven, that they are “believers;” see the notes on Mar 16:16. All people, therefore, do not enter heaven, unless all people have faith. But is this so? What evidence is there that the great mass of mankind die believing on the Son of God?
 
May 8, 2023
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#12
That was a trick question from the start?
How is a "trick" question? It's not. It's a simple question. Why did Paul say that Jesus saves ALL people when we know that isn't true. Do you want to respond to the question or are you here only to troll?
 
May 8, 2023
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#13
Here is the commentary of Albert Barnes on this verse; I hope it helps.

1 Timothy 4:10
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach - In making this truth known, that all might be saved, or that salvation was offered to all. The “labor” was chiefly experienced in carrying this intelligence abroad among the Gentiles; the “reproach” arose chiefly from the Jews for doing it.
Because we trust in the living God - This does not mean, as our translation would seem to imply, that he labored and suffered “because” he confided in God, or that this was the “reason” of his sufferings, but rather that this trust in the living God was his “support” in these labors and trials. “We labor and suffer reproach, for we have hope in God. Through him we look for salvation. We believe that he has made this known to people, and believing this, we labor earnestly to make it known, even though it be attended with reproaches.” The sentiment is, that the belief that God has revealed a plan of salvation for all people, and invites all people to be saved, will make his friends willing to “labor” to make this known, though it be attended with reproaches.
Who is the Saviour of all men - This must be understood as denoting that he is the Saviour of all people in some sense which differs from what is immediately affirmed - “especially of those that believe.” There is something pertaining to “them” in regard to salvation which does not pertain to “all men.” It cannot mean that he brings all people to heaven, “especially” those who believe - for this would be nonsense. And if he brings all people actually to heaven, how can it be “especially” true that he does this in regard to those who believe? Does it mean that he saves others “without” believing? But this would be contrary to the uniform doctrine of the Scriptures; see Mar 16:16. When, therefore, it is said that he “is the Saviour of ‘all’ people, ‘especially’ of those who believe,” it must mean that there is a sense in which it is true that he may be called the Saviour of all people, while, at the same time, it is “actually” true that those only are saved who believe. This may be true in two respects:
(1) As he is the “Preserver” of people Job 7:20, for in this sense he may be said to “save” them from famine, and war, and peril - keeping them from day to day; compare Psa 107:28;
(2) As he has “provided” salvation for all people. He is thus their Saviour - and may be called the common Saviour of all; that is, he has confined the offer of salvation to no one class of people; he has not limited the atonement to one division of the human race; and he actually saves all who are willing to be saved by him.
(See supplementary note on 2Co 5:21. This passage however is not regarded a proof text now on the extent of the atonement, as the fair rendering of σωτήρ sōtēr is “Preserver.” Dr. Wardlaw has accordingly excluded it in his recent work.)
Specially of those that believe - This is evidently designed to limit the previous remark. If it had been left there, it might have been inferred that he would “actually save” all people. But the apostle held no such doctrine, and he here teaches that salvation is “actually” limited to those who believe. This is the speciality or the uniqueness in the salvation of those who actually reach heaven, that they are “believers;” see the notes on Mar 16:16. All people, therefore, do not enter heaven, unless all people have faith. But is this so? What evidence is there that the great mass of mankind die believing on the Son of God?
Ok, thank you for your response. I'm going to dump Paul and go with Albert Barnes on all matters of knowing and following God.
 

ThyKingdomComeSoon

Well-known member
Apr 1, 2023
974
596
93
#14
How is a "trick" question? It's not. It's a simple question. Why did Paul say that Jesus saves ALL people when we know that isn't true. Do you want to respond to the question or are you here only to troll?
All the people means all gentiles, jews ,romans, etc...it does not mean every individual. read the commentary i just posted, thanks,
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
60,137
29,452
113
#15
Paul says that Jesus saves ALL. We know that's not true, correct? Therefore, isn't Paul a heretic?
Jesus is right now sustaining all, so one way of interpreting what Paul has said there can be properly understood
in terms of delivering us from evil, as many pray, as Jesus instructed, in our day to day lives, and this God does.


The LORD is good to all; His compassion rests on all He has made. Psalm 145:8

Psalm 86:5
For You, O Lord, are kind and forgiving, rich in loving devotion to all who call on You.


Psalm 86:15
But You, O Lord, are a compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in loving devotion and faithfulness.


Psalm 103:8
The LORD is compassionate and gracious, slow to anger, abounding in loving devotion.
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
8,312
3,618
113
#16
Why does 1 Timothy 4:10 say that Jesus is the "savior of ALL people"?
Because there is no other name by which people can be saved.

"Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved.” Acts 4:12
 

ThyKingdomComeSoon

Well-known member
Apr 1, 2023
974
596
93
#19
Ok, thank you for your response. I'm going to dump Paul and go with Albert Barnes on all matters of knowing and following God.

Friend, to use the words of Peter;

2Pe 3:15 And account that the long suffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;
2Pe 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
I do not accuse you with this verse, just wanted to mention that sometimes, Paul can be hard to understand.

Blessings,
 
May 8, 2023
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#20
Because there is no other name by which people can be saved.

"Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved.” Acts 4:12
Well, if Jesus doesn't save ALL people then he's NOT the savior of ALL people and that makes Paul a heretic.