water baptism in Jesus' Name.

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Jun 20, 2022
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Not the Septuagint, that is a Translation of one Language to Another and Another to make it Latin and then Another to make it English. That is Your modern day, any Version, but Two, typical Old Testament.
< That is Your 10th Century revised version of the the Latin Vulgate, nothing like Jerome's original in the 3rd Century, ERASTUS: chosen: Textus Receptus: >

In fact, in Jerome's Copy, which was the direct copy of the originals of his day, 1 John 5:6-8 did not exist like it does in your current New Testament.

So, by the time Erastus lived, the Vulgate, had changed from Jerome over 700 years. Erastus, just copied the vulgate for both Old and New Testament.
 
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So No, Your Version and Mine, are not actually 100% Word of God.
But if we Combined, it Would Be!
 
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How does a physical baptism place anyone into a spiritual relationship?
See Ezekiel 36:25-27 and Romans 6:1-4.

Baptism brings about a new heart and a new spirit so that a person can walk in newness of life.
 
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Thanks for the suggestion, but if you want me to read a scripture post it here and give me your thoughts on it. Don't send me on a fishing expedition.
Pro 12:23, A prudent man concealeth knowledge: but the heart of fools proclaimeth foolishness.

Pro 15:7, The lips of the wise disperse knowledge: but the heart of the foolish doeth not so.


By giving the reference and not actually quoting the verse, I both conceal and disperse knowledge. It is concealed to the one who will not do his homework, and dispersed to the one who will.
 
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Jerome admitted to taking the Septuagint, which is Greek translated Hebrew, and he translated the Greek into Latin.
He actually admitted to Not Translating the Hebrew, but rather the different Language Translation of the Hebrew. And the KJV Writers Admit to doing the same with the Latin. Translate the Latin of the Greek into English, not Hebrew into English. So yeah, it is impossible to call it the complete Word of God.
 

ResidentAlien

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Apr 21, 2021
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Pro 12:23, A prudent man concealeth knowledge: but the heart of fools proclaimeth foolishness.

Pro 15:7, The lips of the wise disperse knowledge: but the heart of the foolish doeth not so.

By giving the reference and not actually quoting the verse, I both conceal and disperse knowledge. It is concealed to the one who will not do his homework, and dispersed to the one who will.
Whatever.
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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Same old same old same old.

Oneness doctrine.
They reject the trinity?
Any oneness want to say they are trinitarian?




Baptism in the name of Jesus only in the book of Acts (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5) means to baptize by means of the authority of Jesus(Matthew 28:18) and is done by saying what Jesus commanded us to say, “I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” (Matthew 28:19) because Jesus Christ is “one” in essence and purpose with God the Father and God the Holy Spirit (John 1:14, 18; 5:23-24; 10:30; 12:44-45; 14:7-13; 17:1-5, 21-22; I Corinthians 12:3-7; Ephesians 1:3-14; 4:4-6). The only baptismal formula commanded by the Lord Jesus Christ Who has “all authority” in heaven and on earth, includes all three Persons of the Godhead (Matthew 28:18-19). To use a different formula than what Jesus commanded is an act of disobedience and dishonors the Lord Jesus Christ.
Scripture attests that everything we do in word and deed is to be done in Jesus' name. Prayer requires it. Healing requires it. Casting out demons requires it. Are we to believe obedience to water baptism is any different?

The use of the phrase is a tradition begun well after the apostolic era. That is why there is not one record, in the word of God, of a person(s) being baptized that way. Research it! There is vast evidence proving that baptism was always administered in the name of Jesus Christ until forerunners of the Roman Catholic Church corrupted it; like almost everything else they laid their hands on.

Jesus said to use a name. Titles are not names. The apostles knew who Jesus was referring to in Matt, 28:19 as attested to in scripture.

Jesus prophesied concerning the modification to water baptism that Peter introduced on the Day of Pentecost, baptism was to be in His name; (Luke 24:47, Acts 2:38) Philip explained this to the Samaritans; (Acts 8:12, 16) Peter commanded it of the Gentiles; (Acts 10:43-48) Ananias commanded it of Paul; (Acts 22:16) Paul commanded it of the Ephesians. (Acts 19:1-7) Why? Because there is none other name under Heaven whereby we MUST be saved.
 
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What do you mean by deal with it? I already previously discussed these two verses with you. Do you believe that Acts 2:39 is in regards to the effectual call, as in Romans 8:30, or the general call, as in Matthew 22:14? What is your "gotcha" point in which you feel nobody has answered your question?
I addressed your argument; why didn't you answer what I said about it after you posted your so-called "refutation"?
 
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Water baptism is a "work of righteousness." (Matthew 3:13-15; Titus 3:5)

In regards to Romans 6:3-4, as Greek scholar AT Robertson explains - Baptism is the public proclamation of one's inward spiritual relation to Christ attained before the baptism. See on "Galatians 3:27" where it is like putting on an outward garment or uniform. Into his death (ei ton qanaton autou). So here "unto his death," "in relation to his death," which relation Paul proceeds to explain by the symbolism of the ordinance. The picture in baptism points two ways, backwards to Christ's death and burial and to our death to sin, forward to Christ's resurrection from the dead and to our new life pledged by the coming out of the watery grave to walk on the other side of the baptismal grave. There is the further picture of our own resurrection from the grave. It is a tragedy that Paul's majestic picture here has been so blurred by controversy that some refuse to see it. It should be said also that a symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.

https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/romans-6.html

Before mentioning baptism in chapter 6, Paul had repeatedly emphasized that faith, not baptism is the instrumental cause of salvation/justification (Romans 1:16, 3:22-30; 4:4-6, 13; 5:1). That is when the old man was put to death and united in the likeness of His death, which water baptism symbolizes and pictures. Righteousness is "imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised up because of our justification." (Romans 4:24,25)

Since believers receive the benefits of Christ’s death and resurrection (justification), and that through faith, believers must be spiritually united to Him (delivered and raised up with Him). If baptism is taken as the instrumental cause, then Paul contradicts what he had established before, namely that justification is by faith, not baptism. *Hermeneutics. Paul clearly teaches that what is signified in baptism (buried and raised with Christ) actually occurs "through faith." Christians are "buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead" (Colossians 2:12). Justification on account of union in Christ's death, burial and resurrection is brought about "through faith" - and is properly symbolized by dipping the new believer in and out of the water.

In regards to Ezekiel 36:26, Christian baptism is not done by sprinkling, but immersion. Try again. You would walk around mountains of grace in order to find water.
'faith in the operation of God" (Colossians 2:12)
 
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In regards to John's baptism, in Mark 1:4, was this baptism of repentance for "in order to obtain" the forgiveness of sins or was it for "in regards to/on the basis of" the forgiveness of sins received upon repentance? Also, in Matthew 3:11, we read - I baptize you with water "for" repentance.. *Was this baptism for "in order to obtain" repentance? OR was this baptism for "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? Getting water baptized in order to obtain repentance makes no sense at all. Repentance precedes water baptism.
In being baptized, the Holy Spirit is promised; and if repentance be defined as "to stop sinning", that cannot be done apart from the Holy Spirit. So, baptism and the receiving of the Holy Ghost would have to precede true repentance.
 

Cameron143

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Mar 1, 2022
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See Ezekiel 36:25-27 and Romans 6:1-4.

Baptism brings about a new heart and a new spirit so that a person can walk in newness of life.
Actually it is the other way...a new heart produces new desires. Being placed into the body of Christ is the baptism that produces life. Physical circumcision and baptism are outward signs of inward and spiritual reality.

When God clothed Adam and Eve in animal skins, that didn't save them. They merely signified to them the shedding of blood that did.
When God placed the bow in the sky, the rainbow isn't what keeps God from not destroying the earth with water. It merely serves as a reminder of God's promise to Noah.
When God gave the sign of circumcision to Abraham, the physical act of cutting the foreskin didn't save anyone. It did point to the shedding of blood and the circumcision of the heart that attend true salvation.

Romans 1:20 teaches that the invisible things of God are understood by the things that are seen. We don't start with the invisible and work back to the visible. We start with the visible and understand the invisible.
 
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I challenge you to show me just 1 verse in the Bible that states, "whoever is NOT water baptized will be condemned." In John 3:18, who did Jesus say would be condemned? Those who are not baptized or those who do not believe in Him?
I will only say that the Holy Ghost teaches us when we compare scripture with scripture (1 Corinthians 2:13).

So, when we compare Acts 2:39 w/ Romans 8:30, we come to the conclusion that you are trying to refute here.
 
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How is it not a work? So baptism is just a "nothing" and no work at all gets accomplished when one is water baptized? Completely illogical and ridiculous. You are forced to believe that baptism is not a work in order to hide from the truth.
It is a point of contact for faith (like Paul's handkerchiefs), in that a conditional promise is attached to the behaviour of submitting to the ordinance.

Fulfill the condition, receive the promise.

Simple as that.
 
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I have not cut two of your pet verses out of my Bible. Go back and read post #4.
Okay, so you change the wording in the verses. Just as bad. For you are changing the word of God to fit your preconceived notions.
 
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Not the removal of dirt from the flesh "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ."
Nevertheless, through baptism we receive the washing away of sins (Acts 22:16).
 
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If we could save ourselves by doing a work.. then Chjrist died in vein

as for why baptised in water?
A confession of your faith.
See Matthew 10:32 and Luke 12:8; and you will see that the confession brings salvation.

Therefore baptism is not a work.
 
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You means AFTER Jesus told Nicodemus HOW to be born again?

You do realise verse and chapter format was a work of man, long after the origionals were made do you not?

Stick to context
You said that baptism is not spoken of in chapter 3. I told you that I had showed it to you. You said that I did not; however I did.

It is in John 3:22-26.
 

Beckie

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Feb 15, 2022
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Okay, so you change the wording in the verses. Just as bad. For you are changing the word of God to fit your preconceived notions.
Nevertheless, through baptism we receive the washing away of sins (Acts 22:16).
Act 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
You are telling others ? " Okay, so you change the wording in the verses. Just as bad. For you are changing the word of God to fit your preconceived notions"
 
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I have looked all over creation. and no one, including you has ever shown how a work completed by sinners in order to be saved is grace.

because it is not true.

sadly, people twist the meaning of grace and or to make it so
That is because baptism is not a work.

Obviously, Acts 2:38-39 tells us that if we repent and receive baptism in Jesus' Name, we will receive remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Ghost (salvation).

Only those who want to deter people from salvation would fight against this teaching.

How then does the love of the Lord dwell within them?