The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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No, it isn't. It's a simple metaphor, which I have explained. You have either ignored or rejected the plain sense and made up a fantasy.
1 Help, Lord; for the godly man ceaseth; for the faithful fail from among the children of men.
The subject of this verse is "the godly man" and "the faithful".
2 They speak vanity every one with his neighbour: with flattering lips and with a double heart do they speak.
The "they" here implies everyone else; the godless.
3 The Lord shall cut off all flattering lips, and the tongue that speaketh proud things:
4 Who have said, With our tongue will we prevail; our lips are our own: who is lord over us?
The godless have said such things.
5 For the oppression of the poor, for the sighing of the needy, now will I arise, saith the Lord; I will set him in safety from him that puffeth at him.
The first and last "him" here refer to "the poor" and "the needy". What will the Lord do? Set them in safety from the godless.
6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
God just spoke in verse 5. This verse tells us the certainty of His words (words, specific, not word, general).
7 Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.
The "them" here is a clear reference back to "the poor" and "the needy" from verse 5, whom the Lord will "set in safety". God will certainly preserve "the poor" and "the needy" from "this [godless] generation forever."
8 The wicked walk on every side, when the vilest men are exalted.
This verse is a summary on the state of things; odd to our modern English ears, but not uncommon in the Psalms.
If we claim that the "them" of verse 7 refers to 'the words of the Lord', the whole Psalm is disjointed as verses 6 and 7 are out of context. If it refers to "the poor" and "the needy", the whole Psalm makes sense. The Lord spoke in verse 5; verse 6 reinforces the certainty of His words, and verse 7 gives their application. Simple, plain, logical, and specific.
1 Help, Lord; for the godly man ceaseth; for the faithful fail from among the children of men.
The subject of this verse is "the godly man" and "the faithful".
2 They speak vanity every one with his neighbour: with flattering lips and with a double heart do they speak.
The "they" here implies everyone else; the godless.
3 The Lord shall cut off all flattering lips, and the tongue that speaketh proud things:
4 Who have said, With our tongue will we prevail; our lips are our own: who is lord over us?
The godless have said such things.
5 For the oppression of the poor, for the sighing of the needy, now will I arise, saith the Lord; I will set him in safety from him that puffeth at him.
The first and last "him" here refer to "the poor" and "the needy". What will the Lord do? Set them in safety from the godless.
6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
God just spoke in verse 5. This verse tells us the certainty of His words (words, specific, not word, general).
7 Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.
The "them" here is a clear reference back to "the poor" and "the needy" from verse 5, whom the Lord will "set in safety". God will certainly preserve "the poor" and "the needy" from "this [godless] generation forever."
8 The wicked walk on every side, when the vilest men are exalted.
This verse is a summary on the state of things; odd to our modern English ears, but not uncommon in the Psalms.
If we claim that the "them" of verse 7 refers to 'the words of the Lord', the whole Psalm is disjointed as verses 6 and 7 are out of context. If it refers to "the poor" and "the needy", the whole Psalm makes sense. The Lord spoke in verse 5; verse 6 reinforces the certainty of His words, and verse 7 gives their application. Simple, plain, logical, and specific.
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Any relationship that God has with fallen man is a relationship with to a harlot. The whole book is a love story about a man who enters into a relationship with someone who is unworthy to be in relationship with him. Despite having taken her away from the degradation of her past life and offering a life of peace and joy, she returns to her former ways. Because of his great love for her, he humbles himself and pays all that is necessary to get her back.
This is a picture of what God has done in relationship to mankind; first with Israel, and now with all mankind. Since it is an OT story, it is indicative first of Israel, and secondarily, of all mankind.
The scripture is the book itself. It is actual history. But it is also an allegory relating primarily God's relationship with Israel. I can't make you accept this, but it's the correct understanding.
What do you think God is teaching through the book?
This is a picture of what God has done in relationship to mankind; first with Israel, and now with all mankind. Since it is an OT story, it is indicative first of Israel, and secondarily, of all mankind.
The scripture is the book itself. It is actual history. But it is also an allegory relating primarily God's relationship with Israel. I can't make you accept this, but it's the correct understanding.
What do you think God is teaching through the book?
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This is being PLAIN SILLY. Deal with the facts, and if you are on the wrong track, honestly admit it to yourself, and get on the right track. The translators -- UNLIKE YOU -- were neither ignorant nor blind.
You have seen enough about the excellency of the King James Bible to know that it is indeed excellent. But if you reject if after all that has been said. you are the one at fault, and God will hold you accountable for ignoring the truth and listening to the lies.
You have seen enough about the excellency of the King James Bible to know that it is indeed excellent. But if you reject if after all that has been said. you are the one at fault, and God will hold you accountable for ignoring the truth and listening to the lies.
