Teaching Obedience to the Law Unmasked: Neo-Judaism in the Church

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Aaron56

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Jul 12, 2021
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#41
Sin is what is contrary to God's character and sin is the transgression of God's law because it was given to divide between what is in accordance with or contrary to God's character. For example, righteousness is in accordance with God's character while unrighteousness is sin.
No, that is the standard of the old covenant.

Sin is now “doing something other than what your Father is doing”. God, Himself, matures us from the inside out because He is resident within all who accept Christ. He raises us, by leading us by His Spirit, to prefer His ways. He literally becomes the life within us, as we have died to sin. We enter into the New Covenant as babies. We should mature into responsible adults who can do the work of our Father.

Which brings up the last point:

Righteousness and unrighteousness are conditions of placement not of behavior. Either you are in Christ by the Spirit (righteous) or you are not (unrighteous). If you are in Christ you obtained that place by faith in His completed work.

You don’t understand these things because you are an unbeliever.
 

Pilgrimshope

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Sep 2, 2020
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#42
God is not double-minded. You don’t curse the cradle that protected the baby once the child grows out of it. The cradle was good. The law was given to blind, back sliding people to save their lives. It served its purpose by keeping them alive until Christ appeared.
Did it keep anyone alive ? Even Moses it’s mediator died because of his transgression

“who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.

But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:

…Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: and not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: but their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament;

which vail is done away in Christ. But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.”
‭‭2 Corinthians‬ ‭3:6-7, 12-15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Ministration of death v the ministration of the spirit of life

Like a death and a resurrection
 

Pilgrimshope

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Sep 2, 2020
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#43
That’s my point.
And Why Paul warned starkly against becoming adherent to the law

“Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing. For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law. Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.”
‭‭Galatians‬ ‭5:2-4‬ ‭KJV‬‬

that’s scary knowing that if we are bound to the law it renders Christ of no effect .

If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:

but if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors. For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.”
‭‭James‬ ‭2:8-10‬ ‭KJV‬‬

there’s no repentance once you sin one time your three same as any lawbreaker you have been proven a sinner who needs saving if I live my whole life jeeping the commandments and then one day I slip up , it’s as if I never kept his law at all

whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.”

folks don’t understand that the law is a whole unit it’s one law each ordinance just adds to the one law so that once it’s broken at any point it cirses the sinner and they now need to be saved

to keep the law it means you do everything Moses commanded in his book continually without fail otherwise yoye a lawbreaker and cursed

“For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. ( mostly the law folks won’t hear that part )

But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. And the law is not of faith: ( or that part ) but, The man that doeth them shall live in them.”
‭‭Galatians‬ ‭3:10-12‬ ‭KJV‬‬


if anyone has broken any word in the law they need to look to Jesus and the gospel now
 

Aaron56

Well-known member
Jul 12, 2021
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#44
Did it keep anyone alive ? Even Moses it’s mediator died because of his transgression

“who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.

But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:

…Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: and not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: but their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament;

which vail is done away in Christ. But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.”
‭‭2 Corinthians‬ ‭3:6-7, 12-15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Ministration of death v the ministration of the spirit of life

Like a death and a resurrection
Right. It was limited to only their physical lives. The law could never deliver life everlasting.
 

FollowerofShiloh

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Jan 24, 2024
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#45
How can a Gentile return to the law they never had?

Only Israel had the law.
49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you.'

God's Law was intended for all humans just like being saved through Jesus is intended for all humans.
 

jamessb

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Feb 10, 2024
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#46
In 1 Peter 2:21-22, we are told to follow Christ's example, and in 1 John 2:6, those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked, but you think that the way to follow him his by refusing to follow his example?
Are you twisting what Magenta wrote intentionally or by accident?
 

Johann

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Apr 12, 2022
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#47
How can a Gentile return to the law they never had?

Only Israel had the law.
The concept that Gentiles cannot return to the law they never possessed is valid. Only Israelites, specifically those descending from Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, were given the Mosaic covenant and the law of Moses (Genesis 17:7-8)

. After the coming of Jesus Christ, the law of Moses was fulfilled and superseded by the New Covenant, which applies to both Jews and Gentiles alike (Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:24-25)

. Under the New Covenant, Gentiles are not required to follow the ceremonial aspects of the Mosaic law, such as keeping the Sabbath, festivals, or food regulations (Acts 15:1-29)

. Instead, they are instructed to follow the moral and spiritual teachings of the New Testament, which are summarized in the Ten Commandments and the Great Commandment to love God and neighbor (Mark 12:28-31)

. Thus, Gentiles cannot return to the law they never had, but rather, they are partakers of the New Covenant and the teachings of Jesus Christ.
 

Johann

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Apr 12, 2022
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#48
49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you.'

God's Law was intended for all humans just like being saved through Jesus is intended for all humans.
The phrase "One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you" is found in Exodus 12:49. In the Hebrew text, the phrase is written as "תּוֹרָ֥ה אַחַ֖ת יִֽהְיֶ֣ה לָאֶזְרָ֑ח וְלַגֵּ֖ר הַגָּ֥ר בְּתוֹכְכֶֽם׃" (torah achat yiheyeh la-ezrach ve-lager hagar betochkhem).

The word "torah" in this phrase refers to the law or instruction given by God to the Israelites.

The phrase "achad yiheyeh" means "shall be one," indicating that there is to be one law for both the native-born Israelites and the foreigners who reside among them.

The word "ezrach" refers to someone who is native-born, while the word "ger" refers to a foreigner or stranger who resides among the Israelites.

This phrase emphasizes the equality of the law for all people, regardless of their nationality or status. It underscores the importance of justice and fairness in the application of the law, and the need for all people to be subject to the same standards and requirements. This principle is reiterated throughout the Old Testament, emphasizing the importance of treating foreigners and strangers with kindness and respect, and ensuring that they are not oppressed or mistreated (Exodus 22:21, Leviticus 19:33-34, Deuteronomy 10:18-19).

In summary, the phrase "One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you" emphasizes the equality of the law for all people, regardless of their nationality or status. It underscores the importance of justice and fairness in the application of the law, and the need for all people to be subject to the same standards and requirements.

You do realize the "strangers" was to be circumcised and be Torah observant.
J.
 

jamessb

Active member
Feb 10, 2024
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Santa Fe NM
#49
I am not even a native speaker and I know what those words mean. Yet im supposed to believe a person from the US; native speaker presumably, cannot figure out what it means?
Then you are a very gifted individual! There is much in the KJV that is not clearly understood by modern readers. "God is not the author of confusion"!

One is not supposed to "figure out" with the Bible text means. Its meaning should be clear to everyone who reads it.

BTW, the English contraction of "I am" is "I'm", not "im" (as you wrote).

Say hello to your unicorn!
 

FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
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#50
The phrase "One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you" is found in Exodus 12:49. In the Hebrew text, the phrase is written as "תּוֹרָ֥ה אַחַ֖ת יִֽהְיֶ֣ה לָאֶזְרָ֑ח וְלַגֵּ֖ר הַגָּ֥ר בְּתוֹכְכֶֽם׃" (torah achat yiheyeh la-ezrach ve-lager hagar betochkhem).

The word "torah" in this phrase refers to the law or instruction given by God to the Israelites.

The phrase "achad yiheyeh" means "shall be one," indicating that there is to be one law for both the native-born Israelites and the foreigners who reside among them.

The word "ezrach" refers to someone who is native-born, while the word "ger" refers to a foreigner or stranger who resides among the Israelites.

This phrase emphasizes the equality of the law for all people, regardless of their nationality or status. It underscores the importance of justice and fairness in the application of the law, and the need for all people to be subject to the same standards and requirements. This principle is reiterated throughout the Old Testament, emphasizing the importance of treating foreigners and strangers with kindness and respect, and ensuring that they are not oppressed or mistreated (Exodus 22:21, Leviticus 19:33-34, Deuteronomy 10:18-19).

In summary, the phrase "One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you" emphasizes the equality of the law for all people, regardless of their nationality or status. It underscores the importance of justice and fairness in the application of the law, and the need for all people to be subject to the same standards and requirements.

You do realize the "strangers" was to be circumcised and be Torah observant.
J.
I was raised in a family who observed the Torah and Tanakh. I would not post something I am unfamiliar with.
 

jamessb

Active member
Feb 10, 2024
738
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Santa Fe NM
#51
Did it keep anyone alive ? Even Moses it’s mediator died because of his transgression

“who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.

But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:

…Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: and not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: but their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament;

which vail is done away in Christ. But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.”
‭‭2 Corinthians‬ ‭3:6-7, 12-15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Ministration of death v the ministration of the spirit of life

Like a death and a resurrection
"Vail" is a ski area in Colorado. The correct English word is "veil".
The correct English word is "engraved", not "engraven".
"stedfastly" should be "steadfastly".
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
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#52
Right. It was limited to only their physical lives. The law could never deliver life everlasting.
true but the tribes of Israel are different brother after the messiah had come he was the living part of thier law (in other poorly chosen words probably . )

i tend to harp to those who have good understanding of the two testaments and thier distinctions about the ordination of angels and mediation of Moses that create the disposition of the law .

The tribes of Israel at scarce points did indeed obey the law and keep all his ways and commandments for a generation or two and received a good testimony from God

for instance moses had to die for his sin like I was saying because he struck the rock twice , rather than doing what God told him to do and speak to the rock

and so Moses died indeed because the angel did not pardon transgression but then he was told something particular before he died as he was being told he must die

He is told “ you are going to sleep with your fathers before you “ he isn’t told “ you are going to perish “ but you’re going to rest with those who were before you who passed away , your ancestors “

So this does offer a form of life but it is sort of a life anticipating when w resurrection of those who pass into rest should come and then we see Jesus

“Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live:

and whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this? She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world.”( fulfilling all of the promises of life in the law and prophets )
‭‭John‬ ‭11:25-27‬ ‭KJV‬‬

and so when Jesus shows up notice Moses isn’t asleep anymore

“And, behold, there talked with him two men, which were Moses and Elijah:”
‭‭Luke‬ ‭9:30‬ ‭KJV‬‬

these ot saints aren’t napping now

“and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, and came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭27:52-53‬ ‭KJV‬‬

what I’m getting at is the Old Testament law and prophets do have a promise of eternal life in them , many of them are already with the lord in his kingdom such as Abraham Isaac and Jacob before the law but Moses also and Elijah we know many more there many saints it says we don’t really know which ones but lol

My point is there is a witness of Christ and eternal life , of remission of sins by faith in him and his atonement fornour sins his resurrection his birth and purpose in coming ect in the law and prophets within Israel’s covenant and so there was technically life bit not life yet rewlly just a promise for life to come when Jesus did


“Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.”
‭‭John‬ ‭5:24‬ ‭KJV‬‬

thats what Jesus the Lords word is now that he’s come so we don’t need the other less glorified thing that isn’t for born again with remission of sins but is made to hold guilty the sinful

Jesus our a lord in heaven needed to be born and fulfill life as a man before his words were spoken to man for life Moses words arent the same words ( you inderrrsnd all of this already brother I know and have more insight hopefully lol I’m just sort of talking about it not trying to tell you about it


I hope you understand that




I don’t suppose if we reject the resurrection when it comes there’s going to be another restoration again given the nt docrrines I’m pretty sure this is our chance to grasp hold of everlasting life and the lord sure explained alot about it


Jesus has always been but there was a time when he would come fulfill those things hed been saying since Eden about the swho would be born
 

jamessb

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Feb 10, 2024
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Santa Fe NM
#53
The King James translation sounds lofty, but when Jesus (who is Himself God) came to earth in human form, He spoke Aramaic, a plain language that was the dialect of the rural people. Forsooth, why did He speaketh not in flowery Englyshe? => Because He wanted to be clearly understood!!! <=

The same principle applies to the use of modern translations! People should clearly understand God's words in their own language!
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,148
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#54
"Vail" is a ski area in Colorado. The correct English word is "veil".
The correct English word is "engraved", not "engraven".
"stedfastly" should be "steadfastly".
toy should steer writing tickets and giving me court summons since you’ve created the grammar and spelling police dept !! 😂

old dogs new tricks trying to correct my presentation is a lost cause I’m just letting you know that now so you don’t waste time and fret about it , it may be a lot easier on you to find the ignore button of these things actually bother you ……I am saying this sincerely trying to stop you from wasting time focused on pointing out those types of things to me “others have tried my friend no one has caught the white wail yet “
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
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#56
Right. It was limited to only their physical lives. The law could never deliver life everlasting.
When Jesus came those under the law who also had his preaching that generation it gave thier law life because the life had come

“And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet? Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me. But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions. Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved? But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭19:16-26‬ ‭KJV‬‬

This doesn’t work for you and I and people today however which you understand already I’m just saying lol

because we aren’t isralites born and dedicated to God through the old covenant flesh born under the governance of the law like those in Jesus time
 

FollowerofShiloh

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Jan 24, 2024
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#57
The King James translation sounds lofty, but when Jesus (who is Himself God) came to earth in human form, He spoke Aramaic, a plain language that was the dialect of the rural people. Forsooth, why did He speaketh not in flowery Englyshe? => Because He wanted to be clearly understood!!! <=

The same principle applies to the use of modern translations! People should clearly understand God's words in their own language!
Erasmus confessed something I found most intriguing. He said he took the 10th century "Latin Vulgate" that was translated from Greek to Latin and then translated the Latin back to Greek. His concerns were that the Greek has multiple words for many Latin words and vice a versa. Essentially speaking, Erasmus confessed this translation was most likely incorrect and did not align word for word to the original Greek. This composition is known as the "Textus Receptus," which much of the KJV Bible uses for its own translation.

So even though I whole heartedly agree with your definitive expression " People should clearly understand God's words in their own language." It would be more of a correct understanding if people just interpreted the Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek directly to their specific Language rather than from the English versions.
 

FollowerofShiloh

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Jan 24, 2024
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#58
Are you Orthodox?
J.
No. My grandfather separated his portion of the family and we became protestant but have continued to observe the Hebrew manuscript because it's the most authentic version of the Old Covenant.
 

Soyeong

Active member
Oct 11, 2023
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#59
God is not double-minded. You don’t curse the cradle that protected the baby once the child grows out of it. The cradle was good. The law was given to blind, back sliding people to save their lives. It served its purpose by keeping them alive until Christ appeared.
Please interact with the points that I made in my first post.

I did not suggest that God is double-minded, but rather God nullifying His own laws is what would mean that He is double-minded. Christ did not go around with the message telling people to stop repenting because the law has been nullified now that He has come, but rather he called for people to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand. In Matthew 7:23, Jesus said that he would tell those who are workers of lawlessness to depart from him because he never knew them, so God's law leads us to Christ because it teaches us how to know him, not so that we can then reject God's law and go back to doing what it reveals to be sin.

No, that is the standard of the old covenant.

Sin is now “doing something other than what your Father is doing”. God, Himself, matures us from the inside out because He is resident within all who accept Christ. He raises us, by leading us by His Spirit, to prefer His ways. He literally becomes the life within us, as we have died to sin. We enter into the New Covenant as babies. We should mature into responsible adults who can do the work of our Father.
God's character is eternal, so any instructions that God has ever given for how to act in accordance with His character are eternally valid regardless of which covenant someone is under, if any. What God is doing is in accordance with His character, so that is not a change in the New Covenant. Christ walked in obedience to the Mosaic Law and in 1 John 2:6, those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked. Christ is God's word made flesh, so the way to accept him is by following his example of obedience to God's word. The Spirit also has the role of leading us to obey the Mosaic Law (Ezekiel 36:26-27). In Jeremiah 31:33, the New Covenant involves God putting the. Mosaic Law in our minds and writing it on our hearts. The way to do the work of the Father is not by refusing to obey what He has commanded.

Which brings up the last point:

Righteousness and unrighteousness are conditions of placement not of behavior. Either you are in Christ by the Spirit (righteous) or you are not (unrighteous). If you are in Christ you obtained that place by faith in His completed work.
To say that God is righteous is to say that He is a doer of righteous works and the Bible repeatedly connects righteousness with it behavior, so it is not just a placement, which is why those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked. In Titus 2:14, Jesus gave himself to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so becoming zealous for doing good works in obedience to God's law is the way to believe in the work that Jesus completed through the cross (Acts 21:20).

You don’t understand these things because you are an unbeliever.
The Bible repeatedly connects our faith/belief in God with our obedience to Him, which is because His commands are His instructions for how to believe in Him. In Matthew 23:23, Jesus said that faith is one of the weightier matters of the law. In Romans 1:5, we have received grace in order to bring about the obedience of faith. In Romans 3:31, our faith upholds God's law. In James 2:18, he would show his faith by his works. In John 3:36, believing in Jesus is equated with obeying him. In Psalms 119:29, he chose the way of faith by setting God's law before him. In Hebrews 11, every example of faith is an example of works. In Numbers 5:6, disobedience to God is described as breaking faith. In Hebrews 3:18-19, unbelief is equated with disobedience. And so forth. The way to believe in God is by believing that we ought to be doers of His character traits by being doers of His law, so it is those who refuse to submit to it who are believers.
 

Seeker47

Well-known member
Aug 7, 2018
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#60
'll hope abandon ye who enter here'.