Is Speaking in Tongues still available today?

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FollowerofShiloh

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These passages don't necessarily contradict each other. They simply describe different functions of speaking in tongues in different contexts:

  • Acts 2: A miraculous sign for communication and the spread of the Gospel message across language barriers.
  • 1 Corinthians 14:2: A form of personal prayer or praise directed towards God, not meant for public communication within the church assembly.
The issue was never about Acts 2. But Acts 2 was specified to show others heard their language spoken.
I brought forth the ""other verses on speaking in tongues" do not show it's human language. They show humans did not understand but only God.
So Acts 2 is a single 1 time event.
Never happened again in the Bible.
What happened after Acts 2 is what Paul described.
 

presidente

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The issue was never about Acts 2. But Acts 2 was specified to show others heard their language spoken.
I brought forth the ""other verses on speaking in tongues" do not show it's human language. They show humans did not understand but only God.
So Acts 2 is a single 1 time event.
Never happened again in the Bible.
What happened after Acts 2 is what Paul described.
The cloven tongues of fire. The sound of a violent stormy wind. And feeling the tongues of fire sitting upon them. These mentioned is what makes it a one time event, everything else is the same. These mentioned were visible and audible signs of the Holy Spirit's descent upon the disciples. They signified:
  • The fulfillment of Jesus' promise to send the Holy Spirit (Acts 1:4-5).
  • The empowering of the disciples to fulfill their mission of spreading the Gospel (Acts 1:8).
  • The beginning of the Church as the followers of Christ were united and empowered by the Holy Spirit.
 

FollowerofShiloh

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The cloven tongues of fire. The sound of a violent stormy wind. And feeling the tongues of fire sitting upon them. These mentioned is what makes it a one time event, everything else is the same. These mentioned were visible and audible signs of the Holy Spirit's descent upon the disciples. They signified:
  • The fulfillment of Jesus' promise to send the Holy Spirit (Acts 1:4-5).
  • The empowering of the disciples to fulfill their mission of spreading the Gospel (Acts 1:8).
  • The beginning of the Church as the followers of Christ were united and empowered by the Holy Spirit.
Wonderful post (y)
 
N

Niki7

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Yup - I've been in and around Pentecostal /Charismatics for the last 60 years, so there's little or nothing I haven't seen. BUt I DO AGREE, that the safeguards as listed in the 1 Cor 14 text aren't GENERALLY applied. In the cases I've PERSONALLY observed, the interpretations I've heard have been "Biblical", and of general interest.

There's been no "interpretations" that demanded significant action like: "Find john Smith and give him $6,000.

I remember hearing of a wartime case in England, where a prophetic word was spoken, instructing everybody to vacate the building, which was destroyed in one of the bombings shortly thereafter.

There was a case decades ago where my Wife was given a "Personal prophesy". SO we filed it in "Pending" and waited for confirmation. A month later another person independent from the first one, and not connected with us in any way spoke the SAME Prophesy to her. That's what you start taking it seriously. Anybody that commits resources on the basis of an unconfirmed "prophetic Word" is a FOOL.

In several cases, when I spoke an interpretation, another in the Congregation told me that They had the same Word, but were not burdened to speak it.

and there was a "hat trick" where a tongue was spoken, and the fellow to my laft began to interpret. As he did, I was burdened to interpret, and when he stopped in mid-message, I picked it up and spoke for 20-30 seconds, and then the flow of words stopped, and immediately the fellow on my right started speaking and finished the message. That's only happened once.

God isn't a "One trick Pony". Unless our Ministers, and Missionaries are all bald faced LIARS, the following occurs:

Tongues are spoken, understood by nobody, and there's an "Interpretation" in the common language either by the tongues speaker, or by somebody else.
Tongues are spoken, understood by a person, or persons in the congregation, AND interpreted, matching what the ones who understood heard.
Tongues are spoken, and understood by people in one or more languages.
The Common language is spoken, and understood by people in one or more different languages.

We had a fellow in Ohio, who'd "go off" in tongues as regular as clockwork in the service, and EVERY ONE Of his utterances was the same very simplistic, and always the same length. SO naturally I wrote him off as a PHONY. UNTIL the first time I was burdened to interpret, HE was the tongues speaker. SO - I learned not to be so judgmental.

Bottom line - IF you're burdened to speak in tongues in a service, you don't have to worry about interpreting, because God's already got somebody lined up to do it - it might be you.
Can pretty much concur. Thanks
 

presidente

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If the Holy Spirit, Who is God, gives the utterance to speak in tongues, how can it be human?
It has to be God speaking.
In Acts 2, they began to speak in tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance. People heard them speak in their languages.
 

FollowerofShiloh

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In Acts 2, they began to speak in tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance. People heard them speak in their languages.
A one time event.
Paul explains the other events when no person understood.
Why are you so hung up on a one time event that never happened again in the Bible when there's example after example in the Bible where people never understand that Paul writes about?
 

presidente

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A one time event.
Paul explains the other events when no person understood.
Why are you so hung up on a one time event that never happened again in the Bible when there's example after example in the Bible where people never understand that Paul writes about?
Acts 10 and 19 doesn't say anything about whether anyone present understood or not. And I Corinthians 14 describes what was going on in church meetings.
 

presidente

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You can't speak in tongues and speak in Russian simultaneously. Tongues is a spiritual language, Russian (and many, many others of course) are human languages. If you disagree, how do you write in tongues???
The Bible never calls tongues a 'spiritual language.' Paul wrote about speaking in tongues of 'men and of angels.'

Paul also said this,
I Corinthians 14
11 Therefore, if I do not know the meaning of the language, I shall be a foreigner to him who speaks, and he who speaks will be a foreigner to me.
(NKJV)
 

presidente

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Only in your imagination. The Bible speaks strictly of human languages.
It speaks of tomgues of men and of angels. You may want to interpret that verse as not applicable but you can't get rid of it unless you remove 1 Corinthians 13:1 from the Bible.
 

turbosixx

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The idea that speaking in tongues, prophecy, etc. would cease in the first century is not taught in the Bible and is not part of 'the faith once delivered to the saints.'
With all due respect, based on your reply I see you are seeking to justify what you believe and not seeking/understanding truth. For you to say the exact opposite of what scripture says is not surprising.
As for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; Of course you're going to say it doesn't say in the first century. If they didn't cease in the first century, then they're not going to cease.
18 Children, it is the last hour;
We have all we need of God's revealed word in our hands which they didn't have.

Growing up one of my best friends dad was an Assembly of God preacher. The only spiritual gift their group had was speaking in tongues. I dated his sister and she had a bad knee that gave her a lot of pain. They tried but couldn't heal her. My friend eventually took over preaching for his dad. He got colon cancer and died at 59. No one could heal him. I've heard of other "spiritual" groups and as far as healing, they look no different than the rest of the world. Why is it only tongues and not the other spiritual gifts.
 

ResidentAlien

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The Bible says "Let us do evil that good may come." It's not enough to say it's in the Bible, so there; you have to understand what it's saying. People use the Bible all the time to justify their wrong understanding of things. That's why I think it's pointless to debate scriptures. You can show someone scriptures all day long but you can't really change their understanding; only the Holy Spirit can do that.
 

Nehemiah6

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It speaks of tomgues of men and of angels. You may want to interpret that verse as not applicable but you can't get rid of it unless you remove 1 Corinthians 13:1 from the Bible.
I have already shown that there is NO SUCH THING as tongues (languages) of angels. Even while Paul was Paradise, he understood what was being said, but was forbidden to disclose it. And every time an angel spoke in Scripture it was either in Hebrew or Aramaic. And "tongues of men" simply means human languages.
 

presidente

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I can't find the post. I think it was CD1, that the greater gift is
With all due respect, based on your reply I see you are seeking to justify what you believe and not seeking/understanding truth. For you to say the exact opposite of what scripture says is not surprising.
As for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; Of course you're going to say it doesn't say in the first century.
I think you are doing the same. 'The first century' part is not in the Bible. We were not resurrected in the first century. Paul is still deceased.

We should interpret I Corinthians 13 in light of the rest of the teaching of the epistle. These are some statements from chapter 1.

5 That in every thing ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;
6 Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:
7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:

Paul mentions ideas he will go into more detail into in the rest of the book. He describes utterance and knowledge here. Utterance shows up in the treatment of tongues and prophecy later. In verse 7, we see that he wished or expected that they lack any spiritual gift while waiting for the Lord Jesus to come back.

Look at some of the concepts in the passage we are discussing in I Corinthians 13 and compare them to those discussed in the next two chapters.

I Corinthians 13
1. tongues 2. prophecy 3. the coming of the perfect

I Corinthians 14-15
1. tongues 2. prophecy 3. the resurrection of the dead at the return of Christ.

If they didn't cease in the first century, then they're not going to cease.
That doesn't follow, logically.

Also, look at what Paul says in this very chapter we are discussing, I Corinthians 13.

10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things.
12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
13 And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity.

Paul applies this to himself. When the perfect comes, it will make his speech, understanding and thoughts that he had the.... when he was writing scripture.... like a child's in comparison to what they will be like when the perfect comes. At the return of Christ whether we are resurrected or alive and remain, we will be transformed as we see in chapter 15 of this same book. Paul will experience that.

Suppose you want to stretch the interpretation, and say he's talking about the Bible being written in the first century or the KJV being translated in 1611, or something along those lines... but you say he's talking about us, too. So when the Bible was completed, did all Christians become so mature in their speech, understanding, and thought that Paul was like a baby in comparison? I think it is obvious that many believers nowadays do not understand the gospel as well as Paul did. If you are still learning from Paul's writings, you have disproved the idea that Paul was writing about the Bible here.

Growing up one of my best friends dad was an Assembly of God preacher. The only spiritual gift their group had was speaking in tongues.
How do you know that? Did he have no gift of teaching or exhortation? Why would you make such a judgement?

I dated his sister and she had a bad knee that gave her a lot of pain. They tried but couldn't heal her. My friend eventually took over preaching for his dad. He got colon cancer and died at 59. No one could heal him. I've heard of other "spiritual" groups and as far as healing, they look no different than the rest of the world. Why is it only tongues and not the other spiritual gifts.
Did you pray for your friend? Did he get healed? What would you say to the atheist who said your friend died after you prayed for him, and concluded that there was no God. It seems like a lot of cessationists use similar reasoning to some of the atheists, except the argument is about spiritual gifts instead of the existence of God. What would you say to someone who argues that God does not answer prayer?

Also if you say the only gift he had was tongues, how would his not healing her be evidence against the continuation of the gifts of healing? The New Testament says nothing about that gift ceasing.

Better evidence on the topic comes from the people who ARE healed. When I was in middle school, a classmate who had visibly obvious vision problems-- here eyes' were crossed and weren't normal-- who was healed after an evangelist laid hands on her. You could also read Craig Keener's 1000+ page book called 'Miracles.'
 

FollowerofShiloh

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Acts 10 and 19 doesn't say anything about whether anyone present understood or not. And I Corinthians 14 describes what was going on in church meetings.
But Acts ""specifies"" it does. So the Bible set a precedent that if it is tongues of men the Bible will clearly point it out. Acts 2 does that. The other examples ""DO NOT."" Since the Bible "does not" say in these other examples it's human language, we go by what Paul teaches.
 

FollowerofShiloh

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As far as this verse that mentions "tongues of men and angels." The one thing we know for sure is speaking in tongues ""only happens"" when GOD (Holy Spirit) speaks through you. Angels do not have the Holy Spirit, only "saved human beings" do. And the fact that humans cannot do it on their own (when it is done "correctly") but can "ONLY" do it when God gives the utterance, it is God's Language.

Nowhere in the Bible does it say speaking in tongues is a human language, it says WHEN GOD (the Holy Spirit) gives the utterance. So it is God's language or a spiritual language since it only happens through GOD.