There will be no Rapture!!!
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Regardless, the war in heaven of Rev 12 does take place.....in heaven.
I take it that Satan was cast from the exclusive environment of the throne room of God (where there are presently UNFALLEN Cherubim around the throne). And of course Satan lost his exalted position and assigned role.
But Satan MUST have had some access to heaven, as he was selling his lies to the YET UNFALLEN heavenly host.
I take it that he was coming to them, not vice versa.
I take it that Satan was cast from the exclusive environment of the throne room of God (where there are presently UNFALLEN Cherubim around the throne). And of course Satan lost his exalted position and assigned role.
But Satan MUST have had some access to heaven, as he was selling his lies to the YET UNFALLEN heavenly host.
I take it that he was coming to them, not vice versa.
There are other passages referring to "before the Lord" (this phrase--these specific Hebrew words) where the persons were standing ON THE EARTH (in those contexts).
So there is NO REASON to suggest otherwise for THIS text.
On the other hand, show me a text where, "IN HEAVEN," ever "6 [There] became a day, when..."
I don't find one.
So there is NO REASON to suggest otherwise for THIS text.
On the other hand, show me a text where, "IN HEAVEN," ever "6 [There] became a day, when..."
I don't find one.
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The text states, "the sons of God came to present themselves BEFORE THE LORD, and Satan came also among them" (he stopped "going to and fro in the earth and walking up and down in it" to do so... meaning, he settled in Job's neighborhood [ONE LOCATION IN THE EARTH] for that time-slot and purpose).
As it has always been. So?
Nowhere in the text does it state they were surrounding God's throne UP IN HEAVEN (you've added that "idea" into this text--Job1-2)
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God...
... if there WERE NO other texts stating such, THEN you might have a case.
But as it stands... you do not. = )
As it has always been. So?
Nowhere in the text does it state they were surrounding God's throne UP IN HEAVEN (you've added that "idea" into this text--Job1-2)
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God...
... if there WERE NO other texts stating such, THEN you might have a case.
But as it stands... you do not. = )
The CONTEXT of Job 1-2 is distinct from the CONTEXT of 1Ki22:19/2Chr18:18. Try not to conflate them.
"There became a day, when..." (on the earth / earthly-located) [Job1:6 / 2:1]
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]... [meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]
[meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]
"There became a day, when..." (on the earth
/ earthly-located) [Job1:6 / 2:1]-
1
- Show all
The text states, "the sons of God came to present themselves BEFORE THE LORD, and Satan came also among them" (he stopped "going to and fro in the earth and walking up and down in it" to do so... meaning, he settled in Job's neighborhood [ONE LOCATION IN THE EARTH] for that time-slot and purpose).
As it has always been. So?
Nowhere in the text does it state they were surrounding God's throne UP IN HEAVEN (you've added that "idea" into this text--Job1-2)
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God...
... if there WERE NO other texts stating such, THEN you might have a case.
But as it stands... you do not. = )
As it has always been. So?
Nowhere in the text does it state they were surrounding God's throne UP IN HEAVEN (you've added that "idea" into this text--Job1-2)
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God...
... if there WERE NO other texts stating such, THEN you might have a case.
But as it stands... you do not. = )
TheDivineWatermark said:
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]... [meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]
... and IN THOSE [OTHER] PASSAGES (referring to this ^ ) God's "THRONE" did NOT RELOCATE TO THE EARTH in order for those persons in those texts to present "before the Lord" (as they did!), AS YOU ARE SUGGESTING must be the case! NO!
So, why you are even suggesting this, is beyond me!
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]...
[meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]... and IN THOSE [OTHER] PASSAGES (referring to this ^ ) God's "THRONE" did NOT RELOCATE TO THE EARTH in order for those persons in those texts to present "before the Lord" (as they did!), AS YOU ARE SUGGESTING must be the case! NO!
So, why you are even suggesting this, is beyond me!
TheDivineWatermark said:
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]... [meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]
... and IN THOSE [OTHER] PASSAGES (referring to this ^ ) God's "THRONE" did NOT RELOCATE TO THE EARTH in order for those persons in those texts to present "before the Lord" AS YOU ARE SUGGESTING must be the case! NO!
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]...
[meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]... and IN THOSE [OTHER] PASSAGES (referring to this ^ ) God's "THRONE" did NOT RELOCATE TO THE EARTH in order for those persons in those texts to present "before the Lord" AS YOU ARE SUGGESTING must be the case! NO!
You are not grasping what I am saying.
Other passages speak of HUMANS ON THE EARTH in the same way [/using the same wording] that Job 1:6 and 2:1 are worded (in the Hebrew).
Those humans on the earth did NOT relocate in order to present before the Lord;
NOR did God relocate His "throne" (to the earth) in order for them to present before the Lord.
They EACH REMAINED in their own distinctive realms, and yet the humans present before the Lord IN THOSE OTHER TEXTS (so why not in Job??)
IF there were NO OTHER passages speaking of this, then you would have a case; but there IS!
____________
In addition to that, I know of NO OTHER [biblical] instance, where it says (of Heaven) "There BECAME A DAY, when..."
Sure, Scripture speaks of specific dates and points of time ON THE EARTH (in relation to Heaven/God), but not UP THERE "There BECAME AND DAY, when...". If you can find a text saying such, then change my mind on that. = )
Other passages speak of HUMANS ON THE EARTH in the same way [/using the same wording] that Job 1:6 and 2:1 are worded (in the Hebrew).
Those humans on the earth did NOT relocate in order to present before the Lord;
NOR did God relocate His "throne" (to the earth) in order for them to present before the Lord.
They EACH REMAINED in their own distinctive realms, and yet the humans present before the Lord IN THOSE OTHER TEXTS (so why not in Job??)
IF there were NO OTHER passages speaking of this, then you would have a case; but there IS!
____________
In addition to that, I know of NO OTHER [biblical] instance, where it says (of Heaven) "There BECAME A DAY, when..."
Sure, Scripture speaks of specific dates and points of time ON THE EARTH (in relation to Heaven/God), but not UP THERE "There BECAME AND DAY, when...". If you can find a text saying such, then change my mind on that. = )