There will be no Rapture!!!
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I believe it does.
One example:
2Th2:1-2 -
1Now we ask you, brothers, with regard to [/in behalf of] the [†]coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him [v.1's Subject: our Rapture],
2that you not be quickly shaken in your mind or be alarmed whether by a spirit or a word or a letter as if from us, to the effect [/purporting] that the day of the Lord has [already] come [i.e. purporting that the Tribulation period has already arrived (perfect indicative; transitive verb in the Greek)].
A few things:
--there's no need for Paul to say, "with regard to / in behalf of" our Rapture (the fact of our Rapture) unless he's tying it grammatically to the false claim "that the day of the Lord is present";
--in his earlier letter, he'd already made clear that the day of the Lord ARRIVES "exactly like [hosper]" the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" that Jesus had talked about; which itself takes place WELL PRIOR TO His Second Coming to the earth (7 yrs prior; and is EQUIVALENT to the SEALS of Rev6--in fact the FIRST SEAL--at the START of the "in quickness [noun]" time-period we label "the Trib" [Rev1:1/1:19c/4:1]);
--why would Paul think to say anything about "[not be] shaken in your mind" or "[not be] alarmed [/ 'wanting to "cry aloud, to scream (passive) because terrified" (WP, 1, 189); thrown into an "emotional uproar," i.e. very upset (alarmed, startled)']" IF he'd already taught them to EXPECT being here for it? (and in that case, the first part of the sentence [v.1's Rapture Subject] is WHOLLY OUT OF PLACE! "...in behalf of our Rapture..." what? WHAT ABOUT IT [unless you/Paul are connecting the ideas somehow]?! Why are these words here in v.1 [about our Rapture] if it has ZERO TO DO with its relation to the false claim [by others] saying/purporting "that the day of the Lord IS PRESENT" and the adverse effect such a false claim [v.2b's Subject] would have on their minds and reactions?)
--the phrase "the day of the Lord" is well-defined in Scripture (its ARRIVAL does NOT commence at the point in time of His Second Coming to the earth [/Armageddon time-slot, Rev19], but well BEFORE that point; It also goes on to INCLUDE that point as well as the entire MK age [1000 yrs]--so includes ALL THREE ASPECTS: Trib yrs, 2nd Coming, MK age)
One example:
2Th2:1-2 -
1Now we ask you, brothers, with regard to [/in behalf of] the [†]coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him [v.1's Subject: our Rapture],
2that you not be quickly shaken in your mind or be alarmed whether by a spirit or a word or a letter as if from us, to the effect [/purporting] that the day of the Lord has [already] come [i.e. purporting that the Tribulation period has already arrived (perfect indicative; transitive verb in the Greek)].
A few things:
--there's no need for Paul to say, "with regard to / in behalf of" our Rapture (the fact of our Rapture) unless he's tying it grammatically to the false claim "that the day of the Lord is present";
--in his earlier letter, he'd already made clear that the day of the Lord ARRIVES "exactly like [hosper]" the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" that Jesus had talked about; which itself takes place WELL PRIOR TO His Second Coming to the earth (7 yrs prior; and is EQUIVALENT to the SEALS of Rev6--in fact the FIRST SEAL--at the START of the "in quickness [noun]" time-period we label "the Trib" [Rev1:1/1:19c/4:1]);
--why would Paul think to say anything about "[not be] shaken in your mind" or "[not be] alarmed [/ 'wanting to "cry aloud, to scream (passive) because terrified" (WP, 1, 189); thrown into an "emotional uproar," i.e. very upset (alarmed, startled)']" IF he'd already taught them to EXPECT being here for it? (and in that case, the first part of the sentence [v.1's Rapture Subject] is WHOLLY OUT OF PLACE! "...in behalf of our Rapture..." what? WHAT ABOUT IT [unless you/Paul are connecting the ideas somehow]?! Why are these words here in v.1 [about our Rapture] if it has ZERO TO DO with its relation to the false claim [by others] saying/purporting "that the day of the Lord IS PRESENT" and the adverse effect such a false claim [v.2b's Subject] would have on their minds and reactions?)
--the phrase "the day of the Lord" is well-defined in Scripture (its ARRIVAL does NOT commence at the point in time of His Second Coming to the earth [/Armageddon time-slot, Rev19], but well BEFORE that point; It also goes on to INCLUDE that point as well as the entire MK age [1000 yrs]--so includes ALL THREE ASPECTS: Trib yrs, 2nd Coming, MK age)
^ [oh, and one more point... that I usually put...]
--the phrases "the day of the Lord" and its related "IN THAT DAY," when used in the SAME CONTEXTS (throughout scripture) always speak to the SAME TIME PERIOD (of which ever context they are found together in [whichever aspect OF the DOTL the particular context is covering]); and this CONTEXT of 2Th1&2 (two chpts) is no different (i.e. it also uses both phrases)
--the phrases "the day of the Lord" and its related "IN THAT DAY," when used in the SAME CONTEXTS (throughout scripture) always speak to the SAME TIME PERIOD (of which ever context they are found together in [whichever aspect OF the DOTL the particular context is covering]); and this CONTEXT of 2Th1&2 (two chpts) is no different (i.e. it also uses both phrases)
These things I have spoken to you, that in Me you may have peace.
In the world you will have tribulation; but be of good cheer, I have
overcome the world.” John 16:33
John 16:33 is not speaking of the great Tribulation.
It speaks of our everyday life while we are living in the liberal's world.
Now, here is the Great Tribulation!
For at that time there will be great tribulation, unmatched from the
beginning of the world until now, and never to be seen again. Matthew 24:21
You mean to tell us?
Being the great Bible scholar you are?
That you do not know that verse exists???
.............Get out of bed soldier!
.................................Five minutes till breakfast is over!
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In 1 Thess.4 where it says God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep my language scholar friends say it probably says: God will bring up with him. This makes more sense then dying and gone to heaven then come with Jesus to be resurrected from the grave and returning to Heaven.
But every english bible uses the Masorectic text and it can say either/or
Just sharing info--don't kill the messenger
In 1 Thess.4 where it says God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep my language scholar friends say it probably says: God will bring up with him. This makes more sense then dying and gone to heaven then come with Jesus to be resurrected from the grave and returning to Heaven.
But every english bible uses the Masorectic text and it can say either/or
Just sharing info--don't kill the messenger
The phrase, "them also which sleep in/through Jesus will God bring with [G4862 - unioned-with] him" isn't talking about "at our Rapture/caught-up time-slot";
The understood question he is addressing, is (more along the lines of) how will those [members of the One Body] who've DIED also participate in the time-slot of His Second Coming to the earth time-slot, when WE RETURN WITH HIM (to the earth)? Here's how (Paul explains)... they'll be bodily-resurrected first, then we'll be caught-up together to the meeting of the Lord in the air... and [then AFTER ALL THAT] we'll ALL return with Him (NONE of the One Body LEFT OUT just because they've died)... God will ALSO "bring with [G4862] Him" those members of the One Body who've DIED (they don't get left out just because they've died and their bodies are presently in the graves).
Hope that makes sense.
Paul is not making the point of a kind of "yo-yo" effect with their SPIRITS/SOULS at the time-slot of "our Rapture"
The understood question he is addressing, is (more along the lines of) how will those [members of the One Body] who've DIED also participate in the time-slot of His Second Coming to the earth time-slot, when WE RETURN WITH HIM (to the earth)? Here's how (Paul explains)... they'll be bodily-resurrected first, then we'll be caught-up together to the meeting of the Lord in the air... and [then AFTER ALL THAT] we'll ALL return with Him (NONE of the One Body LEFT OUT just because they've died)... God will ALSO "bring with [G4862] Him" those members of the One Body who've DIED (they don't get left out just because they've died and their bodies are presently in the graves).
Hope that makes sense.
Paul is not making the point of a kind of "yo-yo" effect with their SPIRITS/SOULS at the time-slot of "our Rapture"
He is arguing against the realities that Scriptures speak of.
Why can't you see what make the great tribulation a distinction as of Matthew 24:21?
It says it will be a time of the worst Tribulation ever to happen on earth.
Tribulation like never seen before! So, it can not be speaking of the daily tribulations seen throughout history.
Why such a disconnect?
Could it be?
Unbelief?
Wishing it were not so?
Its become like trying to argue with a man refusing to move his car, stopped at a corner for three weeks.
Because he is waiting for the Stop sign to change to "Go."
Redeem the time. Let's stop wasting it. The argument is over.
.................
Why can't you see what make the great tribulation a distinction as of Matthew 24:21?
For at that time there will be great tribulation,
unmatched from the beginning of the world until now,
and never to be seen again.
It says it will be a time of the worst Tribulation ever to happen on earth.
Tribulation like never seen before! So, it can not be speaking of the daily tribulations seen throughout history.
"Unmatched from the beginning of the world until now,
and never to be seen again. ."
and never to be seen again. ."
Why such a disconnect?
Could it be?
Unbelief?
Wishing it were not so?
For at that time there will be great tribulation, unmatched from the beginning of the world until now,
and never to be seen again.
At this point this has gotten ridiculous.Its become like trying to argue with a man refusing to move his car, stopped at a corner for three weeks.
Because he is waiting for the Stop sign to change to "Go."
Redeem the time. Let's stop wasting it. The argument is over.
.................