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Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Correctors of the KJB act like they know more than the 47 translators of the King James Bible.
”Correctors of the KJB”… you mean like Blaney, who “corrected” the KJV around 1769?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,472
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Hahaha, None so far can surpass them of their God-given skills compared to today's editors.
You really need to read the Translator’s Preface to the Reader. It would likely disabuse you of your idol worship.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
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”Correctors of the KJB”… you mean like Blaney, who “corrected” the KJV around 1769?
There is no proof of that. We do not have a hand written master copy of the original 1611 to compare it with the Blayney KJV edition. We have printed editions that had printing errors, etc.


....
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
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I have to agree with Dino246 on this point.
Just saying so does not mean anything unless you can prove your case that you are an expert in Hebrew, and in reading the different Hebrew manuscripts in context. So what we have to go on are English translations. If you cannot read things in context, then you have a problem. Acting like you know a language when you don't is the common theme we see today in Modernism. Everybody is a Hebrew and Greek expert, but when push comes to shove, they really don't know much.

You said:
I disagree that the Job 1 & 2 setting was "IN HEAVEN".

I've made posts in the past, showing why.

It is an ASSUMPTION (and I believe, an INCORRECT one) that this "setting" was "IN HEAVEN / in the HEAVENLY COURTS".
The fact that these "sons of God" are presenting themselves before the Lord (YHWH) strongly suggests a formal gathering or assembly, often interpreted as a heavenly council.

You said:
These same words (the Hebrew words I placed in GREEN text ^ in your quote) are used elsewhere (together), when talking about "humans" on the earth (doing this... SAME [same Hebrew wording]). If there were NO other examples (where THESE specific Hebrew words are used [same way, together], regarding "humans" ON THE EARTH, doing this... then you might have a case. But there IS!)

Bottom line, it is only an ASSUMPTION that this setting is NOT on the earth (thus must be up IN HEAVEN, the assumption goes...)
While God is Omnipresent, here are verses that tell us that God resides in Heaven.

  • Psalm 11:4 – "The LORD is in his holy temple, the LORD's throne is in heaven: his eyes behold, his eyelids try, the children of men."
  • Isaiah 66:1 – "Thus saith the LORD, The heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool: where is the house that ye build unto me? and where is the place of my rest?"
  • Matthew 5:34 – "But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne."
  • Ecclesiastes 5:2 – "Be not rash with thy mouth, and let not thine heart be hasty to utter any thing before God: for God is in heaven, and thou upon earth: therefore let thy words be few."
  • 1 Kings 8:30 – "And hearken thou to the supplication of thy servant, and of thy people Israel, when they shall pray toward this place: and hear thou in heaven thy dwelling place: and when thou hearest, forgive."
  • Matthew 6:9 – "After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name."

So naturally, if the sons of God present themselves before the Lord shows that the place is Heaven.
After the fall, God normally does not reveal Himself on Earth unless it is for a special occasion or event.
This is a pretty basic fact if you know the Bible.


...
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
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I have to agree with Dino246 on this point.




I disagree that the Job 1 & 2 setting was "IN HEAVEN".

I've made posts in the past, showing why.

It is an ASSUMPTION (and I believe, an INCORRECT one) that this "setting" was "IN HEAVEN / in the HEAVENLY COURTS".


These same words (the Hebrew words I placed in GREEN text ^ in your quote) are used elsewhere (together), when talking about "humans" on the earth (doing this... SAME [same Hebrew wording]). If there were NO other examples (where THESE specific Hebrew words are used [same way, together], regarding "humans" ON THE EARTH, doing this... then you might have a case. But there IS!)

Bottom line, it is only an ASSUMPTION that this setting is NOT on the earth (thus must be up IN HEAVEN, the assumption goes...)
Side Note:

Just want to make it clear that when I say reveal, I am not saying that the Father has been seen by human eyes. However, the Son has been seen and He has told others on the Earth about the Father. In fact, some of the miracles of Christ were a sense a way of making the Father known. But still, nobody has physically seen the Father with their own two eyes.


...
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
23,004
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Uh, no. King Nebuchadnezzar admitted in context the following words.

"Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, who hath sent his angel, and delivered his servants that trusted in him,..." (Daniel 3:28).​
This truth is expressed even in Modern Bibles.

...
Good catch. Totally agree. Hope I can keep that in my mental file cabinet.

And yes, I stand firmly in the angelic "Sons of God" view.
This is why:

2Co 5:
For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house G3613 which is from heaven:

Jde 1:6
And the angels which kept not their first estate, ****but left**** their own habitation, G3613 he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.

The KJV translates Strong's G3613 in the following manner: house (1x), habitation (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage
  1. a dwelling place, habitation
    1. of the body as a dwelling place for the spirit
========================================================================

I do believe that these two verses ALONE are CONCLUSIVE, as that term is only used twice in all the Bible.
No need for further debate. Case closed.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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Accusations like this, often lacking substance, are like a mirror, reflecting the speaker’s own issues back at themselves.


...
That's funny. Your 2 previous posts were telling me I am wrong. Should I assume you were speaking about yourself?

I stand by my assertion that it is the Spirit and not a Bible translation that brings about revival.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
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Just saying so does not mean anything unless you can prove your case that you are an expert in Hebrew, [...]
The fact that these "sons of God" are presenting themselves before the Lord (YHWH) strongly suggests a formal gathering or assembly, often interpreted as a heavenly council.
I also ENLARGED the words "the Lord" in my post.

Because that [that part] was INCLUDED in what I am pointing out about how the other words ("present" and "before"--these Hebrew words) are used (elsewhere in Scripture) to speak of HUMANS (located ON THE EARTH) are doing this.

I hoped you would yourself look that up, to SEE whether these things (I'm pointing out) ARE SO.

While God is Omnipresent, here are verses that tell us that God resides in Heaven.
Of course, we all know this. But that's beside the point

(beside the point that I AM POINTING OUT, specifically.)


So naturally, if the sons of God present themselves before the Lord shows that the place is Heaven.
I'm pointing out that, the fact there is OTHER places using THESE HEBREW WORDS (I've underlined / emphasized), yet is speaking of HUMANS who are LOCATED ON THE EARTH doing this, negates your claim that this "naturally" must be the case that the place is "IN HEAVEN".

I wouldn't have brought it up, otherwise. :D


All I'm asking is that you CHECK IT OUT (feel free to PROVE OTHERWISE, as to what point I'm actually making... Not one I'm NOT making. haha)

After the fall, God normally does not reveal Himself on Earth unless it is for a special occasion or event.
This is a pretty basic fact if you know the Bible.
Repeatedly in Job 1 & 2, the phrase "there became a day" is used (or however you want to read that phrase). I don't see any passage elsewhere in Scripture where this speaks of "[there became a day] UP IN HEAVEN". I've not seen one. Maybe you can point one out to me??



I DO see, however, that Job chapter 1, verses 4-5 (just prior to 1:6), it talks about "when the days of their feasting were finished" and how Job then "offered burnt offerings according to the number of them"... and "Thus Job did continually."
(The verses which follow aren't changing the subject ENTIRELY. Even though, as we might say, it may be starting a new "paragraph".)
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
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Jde 1:6
And the angels which kept not their first estate, ****but left**** their own habitation, G3613 he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.

The KJV translates Strong's G3613 in the following manner: house (1x), habitation (1x).
Yes, but look what [this one] says,

Isa 14:13
For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north:
Tools
Isa 14:14
I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.




[the parts I BOLDED... show an UPWARD move, not a relocation downward (to the earth), so to speak]
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
23,004
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Yes, but look what [this one] says,

Isa 14:13
For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north:
Tools
Isa 14:14
I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.




[the parts I BOLDED... show an UPWARD move, not a relocation downward (to the earth), so to speak]
I personally see a two way street going on here. To what extent I cannot say.
It may be that Satan and his host are excluded from the "third heaven" only, the realm outside of and beyond the created.
And the second heaven is probably a very VERY big space. Spanning the universe probably.

Difficult to say though.

Given the 70th week context of these verses, these events occur AFTER Satan's fall. Long after.

Rev 12:7
And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,
Rev 12:8
And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven.
Rev 12:9
And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
Rev 12:12
Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.
Rev 12:13
And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child.
Rev 12:14
And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
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Given the 70th week context of these verses, these events occur AFTER Satan's fall. Long after.
Rev 12:9
And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
Rev 12:12
Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.
Right. Satan will be "cast out [unto the earth]" when there are 1260 days yet remaining to Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19.

I believe the following verse takes place at that same time-slot: "And the fifth angel sounded, and I saw a star fall from heaven unto the earth: and to him was given the key of the bottomless pit." - Rev9:1 (The "FIFTH Trumpet" associated with the "FIRST 'WOE'" unto the earth--See 8:13 for that info)


[the word "FALL" being a negative [thing], in this context]





I understand Jesus' words (in the gospels) to be a prophecy (of the "future"): "I saw Satan FALL..."
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,472
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There is no proof of that. We do not have a hand written master copy of the original 1611 to compare it with the Blayney KJV edition. We have printed editions that had printing errors, etc.


....
So either Blaney "corrected" the KJV (regardless of what corrections he made) or he did not.

You aren't going to wiggle out of this. You were careless in your choice of words, and now they are biting you in the behind. Just admit it and move on.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,472
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Revelation 13:18, as stated in the KJV, speaks to those who already possess wisdom, implying they should have the knowledge and experience necessary to calculate a particular number—666—attached with its specific meaning. Many, perhaps including yourself, may not have delved into the study of Biblical Numerics or fully grasp how statistical probabilities work. I encourage you to explore Brandon Peterson’s recent micro-pattern series on YouTube. The patterns he reveals are far too complex to dismiss as mere coincidence. To deny the significance behind them without proper understanding is a missed opportunity for deeper insight.

Figures like Mark Ward and Jonathan Burris have tried to challenge Peterson’s findings. In a conversation I had with Burris, when I used the Bible to explain the reasoning behind Peterson’s patterns, he had no response and failed to acknowledge that my points were rooted in Scripture. As for Ward, his attempt to refute Biblical Numerics lacked depth and fell short in comparison to Peterson’s work. It seems Ward's hope is that people will trust his argument without prayerfully watching the video and genuinely seeking the truth.
I don't consider KJV numerology evidence of anything other than that some people have too much time on their hands, so I won't discuss it with you.

Some critics of the KJV argue against its status as the perfect Word of God by pointing to the KJV preface and citing printing errors found in earlier editions. This is truly sad and shows lack of careful thought on this subject.
Would these also be your arguments against the KJV?
How about you don't try to put words in my mouth. We'll both save time that way.

So you believe that that all reputable Modern Bibles are all word perfect and have no errors?
Did I say that? No. See above. I don't waste my time defending assertions I haven't made.

Why shouldn't we simply trust the Bible when it plainly states that God's words (are perfect) and will be preserved for all generations?
You seem to be referring to Psalm 12. Just quote the reference so it's clear for all readers.

Unless you believe that the NIV and NASB are completely error-free and word-perfect, they cannot be considered the authentic or true Word of God. The genuine Word of God would be holy and divine, not 'holey'—a book riddled with holes and errors.
Where is that in Scripture? Read the 1611 Preface to the Reader. It refutes such claims quite adequately.

They are not baseless. You don’t believe the KJV is the perfect and inerrant Word of God. You have a bias or preference for Modern Scholarship and Modern Bibles.
Based on evidence between its covers, I don't believe the KJV is perfect, period. That has nothing to do with any other translation. Because the KJV is not perfect, I use other translations regularly.

Not at all. Bart Ehrman and Rick Beckman are two individuals who have apostatized from the faith directly as a result of their involvement in Textual Criticism. This would not have happened if they simply trusted in the promises of God by faith.
Irrelevant.

This demonstrates a misunderstanding of the topic. For instance, earlier editions of the NIV describe Jesus healing a leper with compassion (Mark 1:41). However, the latest edition of the NIV now depicts Jesus healing the leper with indignation. In the context, no clear reason is given for His anger, which contradicts Jesus’ teaching in Matthew 5:22, where He warns that being angry without cause puts one in danger of judgment.
Does today's text of the KJV match the 1611 text word for word, excusing changes in letter form and spelling? No. Stop being a hypocrite, and stop using a broad brush.

Imagine trying to use the sleep emoji to get a job interview—it probably wouldn’t go over well. Likewise, using it while attempting to impress a woman would likely make her lose interest quickly. Now think about how God feels when you show disinterest (like using a sleep emoji) during a Bible discussion. I’m not saying this to wound you, but to encourage you to grow and be better. To inspire you to be the Christian hero God calls you to be.
The emoji is "Boring", not "Sleep"; it even says so when you hover over it. Now understand that it is an expression of MY response to YOUR post, period. Now consider how often you use "negative" responses and consider "how God feels" about your disagreeable attitude, your insults and slanderous implications, and other less-than-charitable behavior. Don't be a jackdonkey. Don't think for a second that everything you post is "the word of God" and get off your ridiculous high horse.
 

Genez

Junior Member
Oct 12, 2017
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There are some here who do not believe 1 Cor. 2:14. They postulate that the natural man is
well enough equipped, with no help from God whatsoever, to choose to believe in Him.
They reduce it to a moral decision, though none do good nor are righteous either.
(That is, according to Scripture.)
The Greek ended up being translated commonly as "natural man."
The Greek uses a word which we have derived the word "psychic, psychology, psychiatry, ...... and, soul.'

The word is psuchikos.

To the Greek reader, in the day it was written, it could have been understood to mean...
Not, natural man.
But, 'soulish man.

Some translators understanding the historical use have even went as far to translate it...
'the man without a spirit.'

The unbeliever is body and soul only.
Regeneration gives a person a human spirit, making him body, soul, and spirit.

That is why we read in 1 Thessalonians 5:23, the following.

May God himself, the God of peace, sanctify you through and through.
May your whole spirit, soul and body be kept blameless at the coming
of our Lord Jesus Christ.



The natural man is unregenerate.
No human spirit.
Only body and soul!
................... He can not know spiritual things!

grace and peace .................................
 

JohnDB

Well-known member
Jan 16, 2021
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Between:
Cognitive Biases
Cognitive dissonance
Reading comprehension difficulties
Language/translation difficulties
heavy Metaphoric language use
Literary license with requisite anthropology knowledge
Ancient Near East literature style

Scripture is somewhat deceptive at times. Things aren't always as plain and obvious as you would think they should be. Of course we have thousands of years of people pointing out some of these things. But that still doesn't mean that they understood what they read when they read it. Even supposed scholars get stuff wrong on a regular basis. Happens to even the best of us when facing publishing deadlines. Especially as knowledge becomes more specialized as time goes by. (Impossible to know everything)


Even though we have the scriptures translated....it's still not easy to readily understand 5700 year old Ancient Near Eastern Poetry. And even at that....it's akin to being an expert in Midievil French Renaissance Poetry....you just aren't that much fun at parties. People look at it as if it's wasted knowledge.

And ANE poetry....it's not simple or easy.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
23,004
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The natural man is unregenerate.
No human spirit.
Only body and soul!
No. Absolutely false.

"and forms the spirit of man within him"

Also see 1Cor 2:11
Prov 20:27
Job 32:8
 

Genez

Junior Member
Oct 12, 2017
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No. Absolutely false.

"and forms the spirit of man within him"

Also see 1Cor 2:11
Prov 20:27
Job 32:8
But it is the spirit in a person, the breath of the Almighty, that gives them understanding. Job 32:8

That speaks of the believer. Not the psuchikos man. For it says the natural man can not understand the things of the Spirit.

Get back on track, please.