According to the context starting at John 10:30 Jesus says, "I and the Father are one." So how are they one? Some say and teach that the Father and the Son are one in purpose. It is true that they are one in purpose but that is not what Jesus was saying. At vs31, "The Jews took up stones again to stone Him." Being one in purpose is not a stoning crime and at vs32 Jesus says, "I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?"
Vs33, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a a man, make Yourself out God." Going back to John 10:30 Jesus asserted the essential unity of the Father and the Son in the word "one" (hen). It is a neuter number to indicate equality of essence/nature, attributes, design, will, and work. Jesus distinguishes the "I" from the "Father" and uses the plural verb "are" denoting "we are." Thus, these words separate the persons within the Godhead, but "one" asserts their unity or essence or nature AS IDENTICAL.
So why does Jesus at John 10:34 bring up the subject of "gods?" Has it not been written in your Law, "I said you are Gods?" Vs35, "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), vs36, "do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the word, You are blaspheming, because I said, "I am the Son of God?"
What Jesus is simply doing is taking the Jew's statement about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are being inconsistent. In effect, Jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because He said to those by whom the word of God came, 'ye are gods." Of course the judges at Psalm 82:6 are not real gods but were commissioned to judge righteously, which they were not doing and God says you will die like the men that your are. In short, Jesus is "NOT" a god but the God of the Bible.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Vs33, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a a man, make Yourself out God." Going back to John 10:30 Jesus asserted the essential unity of the Father and the Son in the word "one" (hen). It is a neuter number to indicate equality of essence/nature, attributes, design, will, and work. Jesus distinguishes the "I" from the "Father" and uses the plural verb "are" denoting "we are." Thus, these words separate the persons within the Godhead, but "one" asserts their unity or essence or nature AS IDENTICAL.
So why does Jesus at John 10:34 bring up the subject of "gods?" Has it not been written in your Law, "I said you are Gods?" Vs35, "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), vs36, "do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the word, You are blaspheming, because I said, "I am the Son of God?"
What Jesus is simply doing is taking the Jew's statement about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are being inconsistent. In effect, Jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because He said to those by whom the word of God came, 'ye are gods." Of course the judges at Psalm 82:6 are not real gods but were commissioned to judge righteously, which they were not doing and God says you will die like the men that your are. In short, Jesus is "NOT" a god but the God of the Bible.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto