Well...give me a verse that teaches the UNIVERSAL drawing of the Father. One would think that if the Father is drawing each and every person in the world to his Son that the Son would not have said:
Matt 11:27
27 "All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.
NIV
Or one would reasonably and logically think that if the Father is drawing all mankind to Jesus in the distributive sense that Jesus would have prayed for each and every person in the world in his High Priestly prayer in John 17. But instead we find this text:
John 17:-9
9 I pray for them. I am not praying for the world, but for those you have given me, for they are yours.
NIV
No universal prayer in this passage!
Or one would think that if the Father is universally drawing all men to his Son, that the Father would do that by universally revealing gospel truth to each and every person in the world; yet, once again we find Jesus saying:
Luke 8:10
And when his disciples asked him what this parable meant, 10 he said, "To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that 'seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.'
ESV
IOW, "the secrets of the kingdom" were revealed only to God's elect. From everyone else, they were hidden!
Luke 10:21
21 At that time Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit, said, "I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. Yes, Father, for this was your good pleasure.
NIV
So...explain to me again how God is drawing the "wise and learned" of this world from whom He has hidden his truth -- making them incapable of understanding that which has been hidden from them. Therefore, Jn 12:32 (to which you originally alluded) cannot logically be interpreted in the distributive sense. The "all men" must understood in the limited sense, i.e. Christ will draw all the Father's elect -- Christ will draw all those to whom He has sovereignly revealed his Father. Christ will draw all those for whom he prayed in his High Priestly prayer.
And fret not about me. I'm on the rock solid ground of scripture. God is both FREE to save and FREE to not save, since no sinner is worthy of his grace, mercy, compassion or love. God is indebted to no one! In either case, His choice is righteous and just!
Matt 11:27
27 "All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.
NIV
Or one would reasonably and logically think that if the Father is drawing all mankind to Jesus in the distributive sense that Jesus would have prayed for each and every person in the world in his High Priestly prayer in John 17. But instead we find this text:
John 17:-9
9 I pray for them. I am not praying for the world, but for those you have given me, for they are yours.
NIV
No universal prayer in this passage!
Or one would think that if the Father is universally drawing all men to his Son, that the Father would do that by universally revealing gospel truth to each and every person in the world; yet, once again we find Jesus saying:
Luke 8:10
And when his disciples asked him what this parable meant, 10 he said, "To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that 'seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.'
ESV
IOW, "the secrets of the kingdom" were revealed only to God's elect. From everyone else, they were hidden!
Luke 10:21
21 At that time Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit, said, "I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. Yes, Father, for this was your good pleasure.
NIV
So...explain to me again how God is drawing the "wise and learned" of this world from whom He has hidden his truth -- making them incapable of understanding that which has been hidden from them. Therefore, Jn 12:32 (to which you originally alluded) cannot logically be interpreted in the distributive sense. The "all men" must understood in the limited sense, i.e. Christ will draw all the Father's elect -- Christ will draw all those to whom He has sovereignly revealed his Father. Christ will draw all those for whom he prayed in his High Priestly prayer.
And fret not about me. I'm on the rock solid ground of scripture. God is both FREE to save and FREE to not save, since no sinner is worthy of his grace, mercy, compassion or love. God is indebted to no one! In either case, His choice is righteous and just!
Was Jesus sent to the Jews exclusively?
The answer is yes, because that was God's choice, God's sovereign will.
Were the Gentiles grafted in at a later time?
Were the Jews grafted out?
That's God's sovereign will at work again.
Now we are talking precisely about the letter to the Romans are we not.
Romans 11:1-2
I say then, God has not rejected His people, has He? Far from it! For I too am an Israelite, a descendant
of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin. God has not rejected His people whom He foreknew.
That was the Jews He foreknew.
Romans 11:29
For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son.
Yet again the Jews He foreknew.
Don't get distracted from the embedded context, Jews and Gentiles and God's choice.
God knew Israel (whom He foreknew) and chose to graft them out because of their unbelief.
If you attempt to interpret Romans in some other way, then you are dead wrong.