That’s why Jesus said it takes BOTH “belief AND baptism to be saved”.
Mark 16:16.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say, "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention it in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the 1 requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements *
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
And that is why Peter says “baptism saves us.” All scripture fits together harmoniously; one verse does not contradict any other verses—like
1 Peter 3:21 does not contradict
John 3:16.
Why did you stop reading in 1 Peter 3:21? When Peter uses this phrase,
he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-
not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you),
"but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is
symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).
Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were
IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water.
Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an
ARK for the
SAVING of his household). *The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were DRY and therefore SAFE. In contrast,
only the wicked in Noah's day came in contact with the water and they all perished.
So, by Peter saying, "not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ," Peter guards against saving power to the physical ceremony in H20 itself. Baptism is a
symbol of salvation in that it pictures Christ's death, burial and resurrection and our identification with Him in these experiences. In reality, believers are literally saved by what baptism
symbolizes--Christ's death, burial and resurrection. Baptism would have no meaning without Christ’s death, burial and resurrection, but Christ’s death, burial and resurrection would still have meaning, even if there were no baptism. In other words, Christ’s death, burial and resurrection is the substance and baptism is the
symbol/picture. Without the substance there would be no
symbol/picture.
A man and a woman become united through their wedding vows and the ring
symbolizes this. Just as we become united with Christ through faith and water baptism
symbolizes this. Strictly speaking, the husband is united to his wife because of the marriage vows rather than the ring. Yet since the latter is the
sign of their union, it is natural to speak of the ring to mean the reality it represents. "With this ring, I thee wed," although the ring is not the actual cause of the change in the marital status, just like water baptism is not the actual cause of our salvation status.
We must always properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching our conclusion on doctrine. In
James 2:24, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is
shown to be righteous. James is discussing the
evidence of faith (
says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works -
James 2:14-18) and
not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (
Romans 4:2-3) So, neither Ephesians 2:8,9 nor James 2:24 get cancelled out. They are in perfect harmony. Misinterpreting James 2:24 to mean we are accounted as righteous/saved by works cancels out Romans 4:2-3 and Ephesians 2:8,9.
Do not try to “disprove” one scripture by quoting another scripture that you think says something different. Do not “PIT” the word of God against itself!
That is what you do, and the end result is salvation by works.
ALL of God’s word is “truth” as Psalms 119:160 says.
Amen!
James 2:24 is just as true as Ephesians 2:7-9. And 1 Peter 3:21 is just as true as John 3:16. There is no contradiction.
When properly interpreted, true.
we are NOT saved by ONLY one thing, or only two things. We are saved by ALL that God says about salvation.
All that God says or all that the church of Christ says? I've heard this same sales pitch numerous times before. This is not my first rodeo.
To say that baptism does not save us when God says that it DOES save us (1 Peter 3:21) is the same as not believing the Holy Spirit.
Your problem is all you did was read the first part of the verse then ignore the rest that gives us the true meaning of verse.
To say that baptism is not necessary to be saved, when Jesus says that belief and baptism are both necessary to be saved (Mark 16:16) is the same as not believing Jesus.
Jesus clarifies the first clause of Mark 16:16 with
but he who does not believe will be condemned. Jesus did not say he who is not baptized will be condemned and Jesus did not even mention baptism in John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11;25,26. Your method of flawed hermeneutics misses the mark and disregards the gospel of Christ which is the
power of God unto salvation to everyone that
BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16) You are obsessed with water baptism.
It means you don’t believe the word of God. That is a serious sin.
I believe the word of God. I just don't believe your eisegesis.