In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand which was a light to the Gentiles, and God's law was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, which is in accordance with him being sent in fulfillment of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness (Acts 3:25-26). Paul also taught the Gospel of the Kingdom based on God's law (Acts 14:21-22, 20:24-25, 28:23). In Romans 15:4. Paul said that OT Scripture was written for our instruction, and in 15:18-19, his Gospel involved bringing Gentiles to full obedience in word and in deed. In Romans 10:16, 2 Thessalonians 1:8, and 1 Peter 4:17, they all speak against those who do not obey the Gospel. So the start of chapter 1 of Galatians should not be interpreted in a way that turns it against the Gospel that Jesus and Paul taught.
Please specifically address this verse and explain why it makes more sense to interpret it as referring to those who were formerly following God's instructions for how to know Him rather than referring to former pagans:
Galatians 4:8 Formerly, when you did not know God, you were enslaved to those that by nature are not gods.
In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, in Galatians 3:10-12, he contrasted the Book of the Law with "works of the law", and in Romans 3:31 and Galatians 3:10-12, he said that our faith upholds the Law of God in contrast with saying that "works of the law" are not of faith, so that phrases does not refer to obedience to the Law of God, which means that you are incorrectly identifying Paul's problem in Galatians. Again, it shouldn't make sense to you to interpret a servant of God as speaking against obeying what He has commanded.