I think that's what I said - it explains in a conditional clause what we're to be doing.
The point was that many are not aware.
In your sign-off here you then take us to Jesus in John8:
- If it does, how does John8:29 apply to us - Jesus says the Father did not leave Him alone because Jesus is always doing what pleases God?
- In John8:31-32 in a very abused verse that the world uses, knowing the truth that will set us free is tied to whether or not (3rd-class condition "IF") we are remaining in His Word and thereby truly being His disciples.
- So, He's the one who is teaching how to be like Him - always doing what pleases God and God not leaving Him alone.
So, we're right back in one respect to His Word in 1John1:9 which is part of His Word telling His disciples - those remaining in His Word - how to handle sin.
Yet many are not being taught this?
And then, I just read this morning a bunch of posts by a Greek Orthodox guy explaining their orthodoxy. They use John20:23 among other verses to say sins need to be confessed to a priest and if Protestants are not doing this, among not doing other things Orthodox, if Protestants are being saved, it's because of some mysterious grace and mercy of God for their not knowing the truth.
They simply tie John20:23 to 1John1:9 (another 3rd-class IF) and we thus have If we confess our sins to a priest...
Bottom line - many are not taught - many are taught one thing vs. another - who's remaining in His Word as His true disciples dong what He says > knowing the truth > being set free by the truth He teaches?
What a mess...