The idea that 'that which is perfect' in I Corinthians 13 refers to the Bible does not fit the passage or the book.
I Corinthians 13
5 That in every thing ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;
6 Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:
7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:
8 Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Notice Paul addresses topics that he will discuss in the book-- utterance and knowledge. He will later write about knowledge puffing up, and various forms of utterance-- such as tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophecy.
In verse 7 we see that while the church is waiting for Jesus Christ to come back, he says that they come behind in no spiritual gift.
That is not align well with the idea of these spiritual gifts ceasing before Jesus comes back.
In verse 8 he mentions the 'end', which translates (a grammatically infected form of) τέλος (telos). This word is also used in I Corinthians 15:24 in a passage about the resurrection. Christ comes back, the resurrection occurs, then comes to END when Christ delivers the kingdom to God.
Now let's also consider topics mentioned and elaborated on in I Corinthians 13-15. Let's compare some topics in the two chapters.
I Cor. 13 I Cor 14-15
tongues------------------------------------>tongues
prophecy---------------------------------->prophecy
the coming of the perfect-------------> the state of the believer in the resurrection
and those transformed at the return of Christ.
The idea that 'that which is perfect' refers to the Bible does not fit the passage either.
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things.
12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
Is your knowledge of God full and complete now, so that you can learn nothing from the apostles? Was Paul's first century understanding like a child's, but yours is like an adult's?
If you have ever had the experience of reading Paul's writings, coming back later and seeing some insight that he clearly had, some knowledge of doctrine, this disproves the interpretation that 'the perfect' refers to New Testament scripture. Clearly you did not know fully just from having the Bible, and it did not make your understanding superior to Paul's.
Another argument I have heard is that this verse refers to New Testament scripture, as evidence that this is the 'that which is perfect' Paul referenced in I Corinthians 13.
James 1:25 (KJV) states: "But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed"
If it did refer to that, calling scripture perfect, then scripture was 'perfect' before it was completed and written down, perfect early on when James was written, before I Corinthians 13 was written, and therefore not the perfect thing that Paul referenced in I Corinthians 13, because he was writing of something perfect yet to come.
I Corinthians 13
5 That in every thing ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;
6 Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:
7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:
8 Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Notice Paul addresses topics that he will discuss in the book-- utterance and knowledge. He will later write about knowledge puffing up, and various forms of utterance-- such as tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophecy.
In verse 7 we see that while the church is waiting for Jesus Christ to come back, he says that they come behind in no spiritual gift.
That is not align well with the idea of these spiritual gifts ceasing before Jesus comes back.
In verse 8 he mentions the 'end', which translates (a grammatically infected form of) τέλος (telos). This word is also used in I Corinthians 15:24 in a passage about the resurrection. Christ comes back, the resurrection occurs, then comes to END when Christ delivers the kingdom to God.
Now let's also consider topics mentioned and elaborated on in I Corinthians 13-15. Let's compare some topics in the two chapters.
I Cor. 13 I Cor 14-15
tongues------------------------------------>tongues
prophecy---------------------------------->prophecy
the coming of the perfect-------------> the state of the believer in the resurrection
and those transformed at the return of Christ.
The idea that 'that which is perfect' refers to the Bible does not fit the passage either.
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things.
12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
Is your knowledge of God full and complete now, so that you can learn nothing from the apostles? Was Paul's first century understanding like a child's, but yours is like an adult's?
If you have ever had the experience of reading Paul's writings, coming back later and seeing some insight that he clearly had, some knowledge of doctrine, this disproves the interpretation that 'the perfect' refers to New Testament scripture. Clearly you did not know fully just from having the Bible, and it did not make your understanding superior to Paul's.
Another argument I have heard is that this verse refers to New Testament scripture, as evidence that this is the 'that which is perfect' Paul referenced in I Corinthians 13.
James 1:25 (KJV) states: "But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed"
If it did refer to that, calling scripture perfect, then scripture was 'perfect' before it was completed and written down, perfect early on when James was written, before I Corinthians 13 was written, and therefore not the perfect thing that Paul referenced in I Corinthians 13, because he was writing of something perfect yet to come.