Calvinism is Gospel !

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1. Preacher sent
2. Preacher preaches the gospel
3. They hear the gospel
4. They believe the gospel
5. They call on the name of the Lord for salvation

Pretty straight forward
Jesus let us know that not everyone hears. They need ears to hear.

But lots of people do not have the eyes to see this in Scripture.

Pretty straight forward!
 
Yep, that's the Holy Spirit that is present when God's word is preached.
1Corinthians2-14.png

The natural man does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God. For they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually discerned. 1 Corinthians ch 2 v 14
 
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Might help?

"Calvinists"

"TULIPinists."


Better? :)
The statement caused me to imagine the voice of the tootsie pop owl. Perhaps because he wears the same frames as the book smart capuchin I had been accustomed to seeing when reading your posts. :LOL:
 
In Rom 8:29 are there Gentiles in them He foreknew ? Yes or no
No, Romans 8:29 is specifically referring to the Jews, because "those He foreknew" were the Jews.

AI has something to say on this point.

You're raising a legitimate hermeneutical point: context across the whole argument of Romans, not just the immediate verses. That's an important way many scholars read Paul's letter.


I wouldn't reject that Romans 7 is addressed to those who know the Law. In fact, Paul explicitly says so:


"Or do you not know, brothers—for I am speaking to those who know the law..." (Romans 7:1)

That is a clear statement about his audience for that section. The question is how far that audience marker extends into chapter 8.


Similarly, I agree that Romans 9–11 is unmistakably about Israel. Paul opens chapter 9 by expressing anguish for "my kinsmen according to the flesh," and chapters 10–11 continue discussing Israel's unbelief, the remnant, and the inclusion of the Gentiles.


Where interpreters differ is whether Romans 8 is still speaking primarily to Jewish believers or whether Paul has broadened his address to the mixed Roman church (Jew and Gentile).


You mentioned the opening lines of Romans 8. They read:


"There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the Spirit of life has set you free in Christ Jesus from the law of sin and death. For God has done what the Law, weakened by the flesh, could not do..."

You're right that "Law" remains a dominant theme. The argument of chapters 7 and 8 flows continuously. Paul is still contrasting the Mosaic Law with the work of the Spirit. That continuity is undeniable.


The question is whether references to "the Law" mean the audience is exclusively Jewish. There are two main approaches:


  • The continuity view (similar to what you're suggesting): Romans 7–8 should be read as one sustained discussion aimed primarily at those under the Mosaic Law—Jewish believers or those deeply familiar with Torah. On this reading, "those He foreknew" in Romans 8:29 could naturally be understood as the same covenant people Paul later identifies in Romans 11:2.
  • The mixed-audience view (the more common scholarly position): Paul continues discussing the Law because it is central to his argument, but he is applying its implications to the whole church, which includes Gentiles who have been grafted into God's people.

The fact that Paul uses "foreknew" again in Romans 11:2 is certainly worth noticing. It's not an accidental repetition. Whether Paul intends the same referent in Romans 8:29 is the interpretive question.


Your reading has been defended by some interpreters who see Romans 8–11 as one continuous discussion of God's covenant people rather than a shift from individual salvation to Israel. They argue that "those He foreknew" echoes God's prior covenant relationship with Israel.


The reason many others disagree is Romans 8:30:


"Those whom He foreknew He also predestined... called... justified... glorified."

Paul elsewhere says that justification is for both Jew and Gentile who believe (Romans 3:22–30), so they conclude the group in verse 30 cannot be limited to ethnic Israel.


So I don't think your argument is without textual basis. It hinges on whether the audience marker from Romans 7:1 and the Law-centered discussion of Romans 8 should control the interpretation of "those He foreknew," or whether Paul's description of justification and life in Christ indicates he is speaking of the entire believing community. That's the central interpretive divide.
 
This has actually been answered in this thread.

Romans 8:29



The problem with the Calvinist over and over again is this individualized lens through which they read these proof texts.

The word foreknew is in the aorist indicative tense... which just mean previously/already happened.

Who did God foreknow >>> the Jews.

Also remember these letters are eschatological and Paul is dealing with the strife that is present in that community between the Jews and the Gentiles.

One thing is for sure >>>> this does NOT in any way support this idea of God picking people arbitrarily and then causing them so believe.
It is good to see someone reading Romans in the context, well done.

Paul mentions "the law" forty nine times in the letter to the Romans.

Yet, in Philippians, Ephesians, Thessalonians, Paul I don't think refers to the law of Moses (the law).
Except in identifying his previous position as a Jew and being under the law.

I do believe the constant mention of 'the law' tells us the intended audience and the foreknown were the Jews.
 
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To get what was owed to them, they had to be placed into Christ. Jesus said that He would not lose one of them, and He didn't accept Judas, as was prophesied. They were already promised something that only could be given to them after the DRA. And they could only receive it when they are placed in Christ. You have to account for this, or it's a suppressing the Truth theology.

No one is in Christ prior to the Death, Resurrection and Ascension of Christ Jesus.

Those who practice suppression truth theology are those who believe God is creating a special group of people for salvation while others are created for damnation.
 
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We have a powerful motive for defending Calvinism. For one thing, as the Gospel it is the only hope for sinful men - the only power of God unto salvation, the only means of the gathering and preserving of the Church.

Even more compelling, Calvinism glorifies God. The glory of God is the heartbeat of Calvinism, and the heart of hearts of every Calvinist. Calvin's enemies have always seen this and have sneered at him as "that God-intoxicated man." Calvinism gives the magnificent answer to the question, "What is the chief end of man?": "Man's chief end is to glorify God, and to enjoy him for ever." (Westminster Shorter Catechism, Quest. 1). But the glory of God is the goal of the Gospel, that is, the goal of God Himself through the Gospel: "...to the praise of the glory of his grace" (Ephesians 1:6). His glory He will not give to another (Isaiah 42:8). "Of Him, and through Him, and to Him are all things;" to Him, therefore, be glory for ever. (Romans 11:36)

Calvinism is the Gospel

I am not disagreeing with Calvinism but rather I am showing how tulipism corrupts the gospel and demeans God.
 
Yep, that's the Holy Spirit that is present when God's word is preached.

"To hear" in antiquity/original language is to pay heed, close attention... that is why some do not hear... they do not pay close attention,

Hearing is not the particular, unique, individual, gnosis, gift given to some and withheld from others.
 
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Every point you tried to make is fundamentally flawed, because they're all based on the unbiblical opinions of unlearned or ill informed men.

I won't have enough space here to respond to every one of your baseless objections, so I'll just deal with a few key points.


1 Tim 2:3-4 doesn't refer to every single person, who was alive at the time it was written.
In verse 1, Paul urges believers to pray for "all people," and immediately clarifies in verse 2 that this includes kings and all who are in high positions, all classes, ranks, and nations of people, without distinction of Jew or Gentile. It is a rejection of the idea that salvation is limited only to one group.

You claim that "faith is Gods condition for salvation". But the Bible does not support this view at all, in fact it's the opposite, faith is a gift from God, - Philippians 1:29: For to you it has been granted on behalf of Christ, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake,
Faith is described as a privilege "granted" to believers, indicating it is given rather than generated by humans.

Deut 30:19 is not an offer of salvation to all, because only Gods elect respond with faith and obedience because it was given to them to believe. Do you suppose that highly intelligent people choose to spend eternity in hell, while they rejected the free offer of eternal paradise????.

Can you please explain how and or why John 3:16, & Rom 3:21, 5:1 negate "Limited Atonement". The "whosoever" doesn't mean "universalism" as you suggest. It simply means whosoever believes, and we already know that only the elect of God believe because it was given to them (as a gift) to believe.

It would be better to deal with a few verses at a time, rather than a truck load at a time.


1Tim. 2:3-4 refers to all of humanity. Viewing God as hateful and unjust is the fatally flawed unbiblical opinion.
What good reason is there for rejecting the obvious meaning of whosoever as meaning God loves everyone?!
 
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