Daniel's 1260 vs. 1290 vs. 1335 vs. 2300 Days

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The only 'structure' that matters is how the three accounts of the Olivet Discourse align with each other. And, you can see that here:

You are hopelessly confused.
And utterly wrong.

[Luk 21:24-27 KJV]
24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

CHURCH AGE GAP

THEN

END TIMES 70TH WEEK OF DANIEL

25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;

26 Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.

27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
 
When reading into history, a lot of research or discernment is necessary. Depending on who wrote the history, the narrative can be totally different, opposite.
And, this is not just $0.02 worth - it is $2.00 worth. Very true. And, much discernment is necessary. I agree.
 
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The Second Coming occurred shortly after 70AD?
Nope - that is your assumption - I never claimed any such of a thing.

Mat 24:29 - Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
The 'great tribulation' that Jesus referred to in Matthew 24:21 has not [yet] ended. We are in it now. The worst is yet to come.

We know it has not ended because of the very fact that the things referred to in that passage (following) have not occurred.

We know that it has started because of what is said in the passage - because, the things referred to have actually occurred.
 
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There was no prophetic 'Abomination of Desolation' that occurred circa 70 A.D.

Every verse in the Bible teaches that the abomination was the Crucifixion. I have shown plenty of proof of that already using actual verses and videos from other Witnesses. The desolation came later in 70 AD. Jesus gave everyone (that understood) plenty of time to prepare, move away from Jerusalem and reestablish their lives. Again, I have proven that using verses, not hearsay.

You have yet to prove what you believe using actual verses. Do a verse-by-verse interpretation of Daniel 11 as I have and you will discover your theory does not work.

- nor did there need to be

Jesus made it very clear what was to occur:

Luke 13:35 - Behold, your house is left unto you desolate: and verily I say unto you, Ye shall not see me, until the time come when ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord.

That was the moment the 70 AD desolation was decreed. So yes, there still needed to be a fulfilment of this old prophecy from Daniel.

- this is what you need to understand.

I am trying my best to understand your argument; however, you have made too many assumptions with no proof to back them up.

The Olivet Discourse does not predict a future 'Abomination of Desolation' like most people think (and, it never did).

Again, you have yet to prove that with Scripture.

It has been misinterpreted to the extreme.

Agreed.

Please see:


I took a look at your thread and found a few mistakes right off the bat.

Exhibit A:
The event Daniel was referring to occurred in 167 B.C.

The Jews understood them to be saying, in effect, that "when you see [what happened at the time of the AoD] begin/start to happen again".

That is just an opinion. You provided no Scripture to back it up. In fact, no one has. There are literally zero verses in the Bible to support any of that. All you did was take other people's word for it. In this case, you took the tradition of Jewish interpretation over what the Bible actually says.

Exhibit-B:
If you study the history, you will find that the description that Luke wrote is exactly what happened at the time of the AoD. (the surrounding of Jerusalem by/with armies and the desolation of Jerusalem).

That is a stretch and exaggeration. Jerusalem was not desolated during the time of Antiochus IV Epiphanes. Not even close.

Jesus gave us the definition of what desolation means here:

Matthew 24:2-3 - And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?"

You want Olivet Discourse? There you go. You missed the bolded part apparently. Antiochus IV Epiphanes simply didn't do that:

1786309365087.png

Exhibit-C:
Yes - and, if anyone wants to suggest that ~70 A.D. represents a 'second' AoD - that is fine with me. However, the main thing is - what I wrote in post #2.

I believe the actual AoD 'event' that Daniel refers to occurred in 167 B.C.

And there is where you really jumped the shark, lol. A "Second Abomination of Desolation" is exactly what you are trying to get everyone to believe. Talk about 'mental gymnastics'. Didn't you say somewhere in this thread that prophecy should be straightforward, simple and easy to understand? You definitely deviated from that. I hate to say it, but you listened to 'tradition' rather than Scripture.

Once again, I challenge you and everyone here to do a verse-by-verse interpretation of Daniel 11 and post the relevant parts here as I have. You will see that there is only one way to interpret it to actually match history. Please note that there is a Spirit at work that is doing its best to keep folks from going down this rabbit hole. Just realize that you will be attacked as I have if you keep going in this direction. This is not an exaggeration.
 
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Yet, that is exactly what you are doing if you are depending on the opinions of others to determine your own opinion.

I do not 'depend' on the opinions of others; I consider them. Unlike so many Christians, I even listen to what my critics have to say. :p
 
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Nope - that is your assumption - I never claimed any such of a thing.


The 'great tribulation' that Jesus referred to in Matthew 24:21 has not [yet] ended. We are in it now. The worst is yet to come.

We know it has not ended because of the very fact that the things referred to in that passage (following) have not occurred.

We know that it has started because of what is said in the passage - because, the things referred to have actually occurred.
No. The GT is a peculiar assault of the little horn beast king upon ISRAEL ALONE.

It is the 70th week of Daniel. The last 3.5 years of which is directed upon "thy people" ethnic national Israel and "thy holy city" Jerusalem.

And IMMEDIATELY AFTER the 70th week (yet future) this happens.....

Mat 24:29 - Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

And all of the OT prophecies pertaining to this DOTL event come to pass.

And you.....are wrong. Again.
You always have been wrong, and always will be until you grasp what these passages are saying.
 
I am sure cc people are mature enough to handle discussion, and not run it into argument 🙄 🙂.
After you have been here awhile, you will better understand why the 'average' reaction to your statement might be something like:

:giggle::giggle::giggle::LOL::LOL::LOL::ROFL::ROFL::ROFL::censored::censored::censored::whistle::whistle::whistle:

("Yeah - right!")
 
Nope - that is your assumption - I never claimed any such of a thing.


The 'great tribulation' that Jesus referred to in Matthew 24:21 has not [yet] ended. We are in it now. The worst is yet to come.
So the great tribulation lasts 2000 years and on going? The entire world 🌎?
We know it has not ended because of the very fact that the things referred to in that passage (following) have not occurred.

We know that it has started because of what is said in the passage - because, the things referred to have actually occurred.
 
You are hopelessly confused.
And utterly wrong.
No - you are unwilling to believe that Matthew 24:15-20 / Mark 13:14-18 / Luke 21:20-23a actually became fulfilled circa 70 A.D.

[Luk 21:24-27 KJV]

24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.
Exactly! And, we are in those times now - which will not end until Jesus returns.

CHURCH AGE GAP


THEN

END TIMES 70TH WEEK OF DANIEL
There is no church age gap. The time span of the 70 weeks of Daniel were 100% ended, fulfilled, and finished in 34 A.D.

25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;

26 Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.

27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
These things are yet future - after the end of the 'great tribulation' that Jesus referred to in Matthew 24:21 - which we are in now - which has yet to reach its end.
 
No - you are unwilling to believe that Matthew 24:15-20 / Mark 13:14-18 / Luke 21:20-23a actually became fulfilled circa 70 A.D.


Exactly! And, we are in those times now - which will not end until Jesus returns.


There is no church age gap. The time span of the 70 weeks of Daniel were 100% ended, fulfilled, and finished in 34 A.D.


These things are yet future - after the end of the 'great tribulation' that Jesus referred to in Matthew 24:21 - which we are in now - which has yet to reach its end.
Your preposterous theories have all been conclusively debunked.
Here is more irrefutable proof.
If you need help with the kindergarten level math let me know..... :rolleyes:

[Rev 11:2 ESV] 2 but do not measure the court outside the temple; leave that out, for it is given over to the nations, and they will trample the holy city for forty-two months.

[Rev 11:3 ESV] 3 And I will grant authority to my two witnesses, and they will prophesy for 1,260 days, clothed in sackcloth."

[Rev 11:9, 11 KJV]
9 And they of the people and kindreds and tongues and nations shall see their dead bodies three days and an half, and shall not suffer their dead bodies to be put in graves. ...

11 And after three days and an half the Spirit of life from God entered into them, and they stood upon their feet; and great fear fell upon them which saw them.
 
[Rev 11:3 ESV] 3 And I will grant authority to my two witnesses, and they will prophesy for 1,260 days, clothed in sackcloth."

[Rev 11:9, 11 KJV]
9 And they of the people and kindreds and tongues and nations shall see their dead bodies three days and an half, and shall not suffer their dead bodies to be put in graves. ...

11 And after three days and an half the Spirit of life from God entered into them, and they stood upon their feet; and great fear fell upon them which saw them.
Yes - the Two Witnesses - 1260 actual [24-hour] days + 3-1/2 actual [24-hour] days - "Immediately after the tribulation of those days" (Matthew 24:29) - along with the Trumpet events, which the Two Witnesses bring about with their testimony/prophecy.
 
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So the great tribulation lasts 2000 years and on going? The entire world 🌎?
Unless someone can show me how it is that the Second Coming of Christ occurred sometime between the events of circa 70 A.D. and now...???

It is unmistakable that Matthew 24:15-20 / Mark 13:14-18 / Luke 21:20-23a were fulfilled in the events of circa 70 A.D.; therefore, as per Matthew 24:21 / Mark 13:19 / Luke 21:23b, the 'great tribulation' began at that time during/after those events.

Does what is described in Luke 21:24 sound like a short period of time or a long one?

Do all of you realize that Matthew 24:23-26 / Mark 13:21-23 are referring to things happening during the 'great tribulation' that Jesus referred to?

Does this description sound like it occurs over a short period of time or a long one?

I have yet to see any evidence of occurrence that would suggest that the 'great tribulation' has ended.
 
You are hopelessly confused.
And utterly wrong.

[Luk 21:24-27 KJV]
24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

CHURCH AGE GAP

THEN

END TIMES 70TH WEEK OF DANIEL

25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;

26 Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.

27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
No one reads or quotes from Luke's gospel what are you doing?

They only use Matthew's gospel.
 
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No one reads or quotes from Luke's gospel what are you doing?

They only use Matthew's gospel.
You do not think that @GaryA or @Researcher have any realistic grasp on the actual (and obvious) reality of these Olivet discourse passages?

Neither do I.

Nor do they understand how Daniel, Revelation and the prophets integrate seamlessly into what I have expounded upon on this thread.

Bombastic cluelessness abounds though, that much is true.
 
Yes - the Two Witnesses - 1260 actual [24-hour] days + 3-1/2 actual [24-hour] days - "Immediately after the tribulation of those days" (Matthew 24:29) - along with the Trumpet events, which the Two Witnesses bring about with their testimony/prophecy.
Rev 11:1-13 is parenthetical and not attached to the trumpets sequence.

Nor is Rev 10.

Rev 9 is the 5th and 6th woe trumpets.

Time to level up and get it right buddy.
 
I'm not sure if I did any interpretations of one of the most controversial set of verses in the entire Bible:

Daniel 9:26 - And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

I see two interpretations that are often argued:
  1. Prince that shall come = Good Guy
  2. Prince that shall come = Bad Guy
Although I prefer option 1, option 2 still works with my overall interpretation of Daniel's prophecies as well as the entire Bible. If we interpret the 'prince that shall come' as the 'bad guy', then he is simply the Little Horn of Daniel 8 and Sixth Head of the Beast, i.e., the Prince of Rome.

Thus, we have:
  • Prince of Persia (Daniel 10:20)
  • Prince of Grecia (Daniel 10:20)
  • Prince of Rome <- Next logical successor
In other words, these 'princes' are the Principalities governing over each phase of the visions.

The overall interpretation would be that the "people belonging to the Early Roman Empire" will destroy Jerusalem and Herod's Temple in 70 AD. Yep, that works perfectly.

If we interpret the 'prince that shall come' as Jesus, the overall result is the same. The "people living during the times of Jesus" will destroy Jerusalem and Herod's Temple in 70 AD. Yep, that also works perfectly.

Next verse please:

Daniel 9:27 - And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
  • He shall confirm the Covenant = Jesus confirming the New Covenant (obviously)
  • Sacrifice and oblation to cease = The Crucifixion made the daily sacrifice obsolete as prophesied many times
  • Overspreading of abominations = The Crucifixion was the Abomination of Desolation
  • He shall make it desolate = The Crucifixion was the last straw that caused God to destroy Jerusalem in 70 AD
  • Even until the consummation = Jesus made it clear that Jerusalem will become desolate because they rejected him
  • Reference Verses: Daniel 8:11, Daniel 8:12, Daniel 8:13, Daniel 11:31, Daniel 12:11
And there we have it. Problem solved. You are now free to update your videos, sermons, books, websites, etc.

You're welcome.

1786503492088.png
 
I'm not sure if I did any interpretations of one of the most controversial set of verses in the entire Bible:

Daniel 9:26 - And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

I see two interpretations that are often argued:
  1. Prince that shall come = Good Guy
  2. Prince that shall come = Bad Guy
Although I prefer option 1, option 2 still works with my overall interpretation of Daniel's prophecies as well as the entire Bible. If we interpret the 'prince that shall come' as the 'bad guy', then he is simply the Little Horn of Daniel 8 and Sixth Head of the Beast, i.e., the Prince of Rome.

Thus, we have:
  • Prince of Persia (Daniel 10:20)
  • Prince of Grecia (Daniel 10:20)
  • Prince of Rome <- Next logical successor
In other words, these 'princes' are the Principalities governing over each phase of the visions.

The overall interpretation would be that the "people belonging to the Early Roman Empire" will destroy Jerusalem and Herod's Temple in 70 AD. Yep, that works perfectly.

If we interpret the 'prince that shall come' as Jesus, the overall result is the same. The "people living during the times of Jesus" will destroy Jerusalem and Herod's Temple in 70 AD. Yep, that also works perfectly.

Next verse please:

Daniel 9:27 - And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
  • He shall confirm the Covenant = Jesus confirming the New Covenant (obviously)
  • Sacrifice and oblation to cease = The Crucifixion made the daily sacrifice obsolete as prophesied many times
  • Overspreading of abominations = The Crucifixion was the Abomination of Desolation
  • He shall make it desolate = The Crucifixion was the last straw that caused God to destroy Jerusalem in 70 AD
  • Even until the consummation = Jesus made it clear that Jerusalem will become desolate because they rejected him
  • Reference Verses: Daniel 8:11, Daniel 8:12, Daniel 8:13, Daniel 11:31, Daniel 12:11
And there we have it. Problem solved. You are now free to update your videos, sermons, books, websites, etc.

You're welcome.

View attachment 293927
[Dan 9:27 KJV] 27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make [it] desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

What covenant? With whom? When did this happen?

And BTW, a contiguous 70 weeks definitely doesn't work. No matter how you pack the sausage.