Interesting. So, please comment on this:
Romans 11:11
I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
Now, tell me if I'm logically wrong, but if something comes unto a group, that means they didn't have it before, otherwise how could it come unto them if it was already there and available to them apart from, as the context clearly points out, absent the fall of Israel?
MM
your logic is sound — if salvation “came unto” the Gentiles
through Israel’s fall, then by definition the Gentiles did not possess that salvation in the same covenantal way
before Israel’s fall, otherwise Paul’s statement in Romans 11:11 becomes meaningless.
Gentiles always had access to God — but not the covenantal administration of salvation.
Before Israel’s fall:
Gentiles could be saved
Gentiles could believe
Gentiles could join themselves to Israel (Ruth, Rahab, proselytes)
But they did
not receive salvation as a
direct, unmediated, covenantal offer from God.
They received it
through Israel, not
apart from Israel.
This is why Paul says: “You were
strangers to the covenants of promise.” (Eph. 2:12)
Not “strangers to God,” but “strangers to the covenants.”
Romans 11:11 describes a
new covenantal access, not the first existence of salvation.
Paul’s grammar is precise, “Through their fall
salvation came unto the Gentiles.” does
not mean:
Gentiles were previously unsavable
Gentiles had no access to God
Gentiles were universally lost
It means:
The
administration of salvation changed
The
door opened directly to the nations
The
mediatorial role of Israel paused
The
gospel went out apart from Israel’s national obedience
In other words, g
entiles always had salvation available through Israel, but salvation came unto them directly only after Israel’s fall.
This is exactly Paul’s argument in Romans 11.
Paul is explaining:
Israel’s fall = temporary
Gentile inclusion = purposeful
The new administration = direct gospel access
The end goal = Israel provoked to jealousy
The final result = Israel restored
So your logic is correct
as long as you keep the covenantal categories straight.
Gentiles were always included in God’s promise, but the covenantal delivery of salvation came to them directly only through Israel’s fall; before that, salvation was available to Gentiles only through Israel’s covenant, not apart from it — and this is precisely what Romans 11:11 teaches.