under grace it means that you can not earn something by what you do or do not do. and you cannot unearn it.Under grace means that works good or evil do matter?
Thks
under grace it means that you can not earn something by what you do or do not do. and you cannot unearn it.Under grace means that works good or evil do matter?
Thks
Grace is God's unmerited favor in which He shows us mercy, kindness, and patience instead of the judgment that we deserve for sinning against Him. God's grace cannot be earned by our actions/performance/works. Grace is based on the character of God and not on our sincerity, performance, or ability to keep the law. Otherwise, grace would not be grace.Begun in grace!
Done in grace!
Finished in grace!
All the power of Grace and the life of grace, it don't mean works ain't involved but that these works are empowered by grace!
2 Corinthians 12:9
And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me.
Thks
esus promises salvation to the humble?
Matthew 11:29
Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls.
Thks
I agree with much of what you have written but the question of who claims the Spirit must be addressed before most other matters are approached.The question is not who claims the Spirit, but which interpretation best fits what God has actually said.
The Biblical concept of Grace is defined as "unmerited favor" and is well illustrated by Jesus' parable of the prodigal son. The parable depicts a younger brother who takes his inheritance and leaves the house. He squanders the money and falls into poverty. During his struggle to live as a homeless person on the street, without the means to survive, he decides to return home. He decides it would be better to live as a servant in his father's house than to starve on the street. When he returned home, his father greeted him with open arms and held a banquet to celebrate his son's return. The son turned to his father with a contrite heart, confessed his sins, and begged for forgiveness and blessing. The Father accepted his son's confession, humility, and contrition, and welcomed him back into the household.What verse 9
Explain your concept of grace don't forget 1Jn 1:6=7
6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:
7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
And
2 Corinthians 12:9
And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me.
Thks
Perseverance is conditional and requires our participation and faithfulness!
Obedience is required, but perfect obedience is not required.
"Death" is not "being separated from the Lord". It is not possible to be separated from the Lord, since He is everywhere. If I die and go to hades, He is even there.
No other thing can separate us from God's love
None.What verse of scripture do you not understand?
Thks
What the point in replying to me without any explanation as to why your replying to me, and what's with randomly picking out loads of scriptures without any further explanation,Matthew 6:20
But lay up for yourselves treasures in heaven, where neither moth nor rust doth corrupt, and where thieves do not break through nor steal:
Jn 15:1-11
1 I am the true vine, and my Father is the husbandman.
2 Every branch in me that beareth not fruit he taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, he purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit.
3 Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you.
4 Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me.
5 I am the vine, ye are the branches: He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without me ye can do nothing.
6 If a man abide not in me, he is cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast them into the fire, and they are burned.
7 If ye abide in me, and my words abide in you, ye shall ask what ye will, and it shall be done unto you.
8 Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples.
9 As the Father hath loved me, so have I loved you: continue ye in my love.
10 if ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.
11 These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full.
Thks
If the true belivers hadn't clarified their teaching, the posers would be running the show now.That conclusion simply does not follow from Scripture.
If having the Holy Spirit made a believer infallible in interpretation, there would have been no need for most of the New Testament epistles.
The true ones were sactified, but the posers weren't.The Corinthians were called "sanctified in Christ Jesus" (1 Cor. 1:2), yet Paul corrected them repeatedly.
Again, posers were trying to gain a foothold in the chiurch, but the true believers were resistant.The Galatians had received the Spirit (Gal. 3:2-3), yet Paul asked, "Who hath bewitched you?"
You did notice the peril they faced, if they didn't oust the posers.The seven churches in Revelation were addressed as churches of Christ, yet several were sharply rebuked.
The mistaken, immature, inconsistent, and in need of correction, show they are posers by their disconnection from the mind of Christ.So Scripture itself shows Spirit-indwelt believers can be mistaken, immature, inconsistent, and in need of correction.
Great, ht not all of them were in Christ.You ask why I think the Galatians had the Spirit. Because Paul explicitly says they did (Gal. 3:2-5).
Of course not.Likewise, possessing "the mind of Christ" (1 Cor. 2:16) does not mean possessing omniscience.
The Spirit will not allow corrup teachings.It means the Spirit enables us to understand spiritual truth.
We still grow in knowledge, test doctrine, and correct errors.
Disagreements occur so the posers can be weeded out.Your position creates a problem.
If everyone with the Holy Spirit interprets Scripture perfectly, why have sincere, godly believers disagreed on doctrine since the first century?
And the true believers kept out the posers.The apostles did not say: "Whoever disagrees with me lacks the Spirit."
They reasoned from Scripture.
Amen.The test is not, "Does this person agree with me?"
The test is, "What has God actually said?"
I trust the Spirit.That is why even believers must continually test their conclusions against the whole counsel of God rather than assuming that possessing the Spirit makes every interpretation automatically correct.
I just wonder why you seem to be trying to separate the Son from the Father.This doesn't show the relationship to be simultaneously from your your idea here, your idea here point towards the father and son being one, and for many things this is Good, but however this still doesn't answer the question you where asked, and again I must stress that understanding a believer does have a relationship with the father first before being accepted by the son is very important to understand.
Your next answer of go ahead and educate me, doesn't seem like your interested, so I'm not sure how to reply to this remark, you don't seem to interested.
Nope.Are you Catholic ?
Nobody but me will be judged for my actions, on the day of judgement.No. Placing yourself between Jesus Christ and salvation clearly shows that you are relying on yourself as savior rather than recognizing Jesus Christ alone as the Savior.
You very much sound catholic and I wasn't,I just wonder why you seem to be trying to separate the Son from the Father.
Nope.
No, I don't, and in fact have repeatedly said that the works of the Law can't save anyone.You teach salvation by obedience/works.
Unfortuneately, you have included every act of obedience in with the works of the Law that Paul wrote against.I teach salvation by grace through faith, not works.
By your interpretation then, verse 7 and 9 make your point moot.(Ephesians 2:8,9) You teach that we are saved BY good works and I teach that we are saved FOR good works. (Ephesians 2:10) Big difference! In Romans 1:5, we read - Through Him we have received grace and apostleship for obedience to the faith (obedience that comes from faith) among all nations for His name. The purpose of Paul’s apostleship was not merely to bring people to conversion but also to bring about transformed lives that were obedient to God after conversion. You have the cart before the horse.
I do not teach we must keep the law to be saved either. I do not teach salvation by works in general either. I'm not turning obedience to God into works of the law. I am simply pointing out to you that the law is not merely limited to circumcision, dietary rules, sabbath keeping, feast keeping, tithing etc.. but also includes the moral aspect of the law (Exodus 20:1-17; Leviticus 19:18; Deuteronomy 6:5) which does not exclude good works. (James 2:15-16) So, the saved by "these" works (good works) and just not "those" works (works of the law) argument which is often taught by those who teach salvation by works is bogus.
Those who say they have no sin (1 John 1:8) deceive themselves and the truth is not in them. For these folks who fail to confess their sins and instead, say they have no sin or have not sinned, their sins have not been forgiven, and they are walking in darkness. These remain in their sins and neither have fellowship with God and do not know God.
Agreed1 John 2:3 - By this we know that we have come to know Him, (already know Him/already saved/demonstrative evidence) if we "keep" (Greek word "tereo" - guard, observe, watch over) His commandments, which is descriptive of genuine believers.
So why can't we say that ?Strong's Greek: 5083. τηρέω (téreó) -- to watch over, to guard (biblehub.com)
Verse 4 The one who says, “I have come to know Him,” and does not "keep" (guard, observe, watch over) His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. That is 'descriptive' of unbelievers/make believers. John is not talking about sinless, perfect obedience to the 10 commandments under the law of Moses. In God there is no sin and in Christ the blood of Christ has washed away our sins.
The ten commandments are the moral aspect of the Law.Again, you cannot dissect the 10 commandments from the moral aspect of the law. (Exodus 20:1-17; Leviticus 19:18; Matthew 22:37-40) So, you are seeking justification by obeying the 10 commandments instead of by faith? Where did Paul say we are saved by obeying 10 commands written on our hearts instead by faith in Christ in the NT?
I agree.This is descriptive of those who have not been saved by grace through faith and have not had their sins washed away by the blood of Christ. Hence, their sins remains: adulterer, murderer, coveter, liar, idolater etc.. For those who have been converted: 1 Corinthians 6:11 - And such were (past tense) some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God. In the eyes of God, no longer sinners, but saints, thanks to Jesus Christ.
I don't, as they are written on my new heart !Don't leave out the 10 commandments (Exodus 20:1-17) which is also included in the law of Moses. (Matthew 22:37-40)
This is all nice but once again I will ask do you understand that having a relationship with the father before being accepted by the son is biblical ?That which God has given to Jesus for our salvation is adeqate for our salvation.
To study One is to study both the Father and the Son.
The commands we have from Jesus and His apostles on how to be saved, are sufficient for salvation on the day of judgement.
Love God with all your heart, mind, soul, amd strength, and love your neighbor as you love yourself.
I'm not sure what you are asking.What happened to baptism in (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; 5:31; 10:43; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 26:18)?
Agreed.Enduring faithfully until the end is a conditional confirmation that one is a child of God. Those who fail to endure demonstrate otherwise.
Hardly, as it is faith in the gifts of God that facilitate both the obdience and the effect of the gifts.Of course, you will stick with your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38 and Acts 22:16 which negates salvation through faith and culminates in salvation by works because you teach salvation by works.
I don't agree, as the Spirtit will not abide in a polluted temple, so continuing sinners/unwashed have no hope of receiving the gift of the Holy Ghost/Spirit baptism.In Acts 2:38, for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
Yes, Cornelius/Gentiles were a special case, meant to show the Jews with Peter that God had accepted even Gentiles into the family of God.*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47) In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit -Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18. *Hermeneutics.
The name of the Lord is used at the water baptism ''in the name of Jesus Christ'' for the remisison of past sins.In Acts 22:16, the cleansing happens as Paul called on the name of the Lord and not literally by water baptism. The water is symbolic; the appeal to the name of the Lord is the saving act. Romans 10:13 - For whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.
It is written..."And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." (1 John 5:8)The remission of sins has three applications:
1. Literally, by the blood of Christ - Matthew 26:28
2. Experientially, by faith in Christ - Acts 26:18
3. Figuratively, by water baptism - Acts 22:16.
I will agree with Peter, instead of what you havebeen taught.Acts 22:16 - WHAT IS TRUTH: Acts 22:16--Baptism Essential for Salvation?
The only logical and Biblical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18) *Perfect Harmony*
I, like Paul, don't believe that the works of the Law can save anyone, so I wish you would quit saying that.Repentance is unto/for the remission of sins, just as we see in (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; 5:31). So, what do you do with those verses? Simply disregard them because they don't mention baptism? Was John's baptism in (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3) for "in order to obtain" the remission of sins or was it for "in regard to/on the basis of the remission of sins" received upon repentance? Also, in Matthew 3:11, we read - I baptize you with water for repentance.. Now was this baptism for "in order to obtain" repentance? OR for "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? Obviously, the latter. Repentance "precedes" baptism, so baptism is in regard to/on the basis of the remission of sins received upon repentance. (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; 5:31)
Obey Peter after carefully considering the totality of scripture on the subject and ignore the skeptics who promote works salvation.
So, why was the laying on of hands done in a few examples of conversion but not in all examples of conversion in the NT?
Of course, you disagree because you teach salvation by works.
Faith fosters repentance from sin, and faith fosters baptims in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins.Without faith (repentance implied or assumed/two sides to the same coin (Acts 3:19; 5:31; 10:43; 11:17,18; 20:21 etc..) there is no remission of sins. Water baptism follows repentance/faith/remission of sins. (Acts 10:43-47)
Both are a reality.Spirit baptism is the reality, and water baptism is the picture of the reality. Being raised with Christ to walk in newness of life/our old man is destroyed with Christ into Christ's death is signified but not procured in water baptism. False religion turns signs and symbols of salvation into the substance and the source.