Unfortunately I cannot read your thoughts nor presuppositions so you will need to be specific when you are responding in order for me to accurately represent your position. Where do you get the idea that Galatians 5:22 is talking about faith in God? The majority of modern translations render the word there as "faithfulness" and the majority of commentators recognize that the fruit of the Spirit here is not talking about our feelings or attitude towards God, but concepts that are worked out within us. Sort of like working from the inside out. In fact, John Calvin didn't even read Galatians 5:22 the way you are reading it. He said "Faith means truth, and is contrasted with cunning, deceit, and falsehood, as peace is with quarrels and contentions. Long-suffering is gentleness of mind, which disposes us to take everything in good part, and not to be easily offended. The other terms require no explanation, for the dispositions of the mind must be learned from the outward conduct." (Ref. http://www.ccel.org/ccel/calvin/calcom41.iii.vii.v.html)
Once again, you cannot argue from an exegetical point of view that Galatians 5:22 is speaking about faith in God. You are reading that into the passage and then reading other passages in light of your eisegesis of Galatians 5. "I was pointing out that no one can say Jesus is Lord except if they have the Spirit dwelling in them..." vs. "These people do not have the Spirit - when they call Jesus Lord..." Uh..... I'll let you figure that one out.
"Therefore, no one can have faith in God unless they have the Spirit dwelling in them." Really? How do you interpret James 2:18-19? James 2:18 But someone may well say, “You have faith and I have works; show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works.” 19 You believe that God is one. You do well; the demons also believe, and shudder.
This is where you really lost me:
"But not all the Israelites accepted the good news. For Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our message?” Consequently, faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word of Christ. But I ask: Did they not hear? Of course they did." (Romans 10:16-18a)
So, all of them did not have faith. Why? Because they were not predestined to have faith as we were(see Ephesians 1:5, 1:11).
Why would you ever jump to Ephesians 1:5,11 instead of reading the verse contextually? How would you ever perform a meaningful exegesis reading three verses and jump to an entire different book that is speaking in an entire different context? Continue reading Romans 10 to chapter 11 where Paul makes his major point that is "For God has shut up all in disobedience so that He may show mercy to all." (Rom. 11:32) No only that, but do you agree with the statement "So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ." ? Do you believe that faith comes through hearing the message of the gospel?
Was Jesus lying when He said "But the testimony which I receive is not from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved." or did He really mean that He's giving His message that people may be or might be saved? Would you have corrected Jesus and said "no, nobody "might be saved" you are either in or you're out! Don't you understand we are predestined?" (Ref. John 5:34)