Alex, what I mean is that most people think the words "separation of church and state" occur in the US Constitution. The first amendment was meant to protect the people from the government,
Yes, I understand that.
not the other way around.
I don't really understand how that would be feasible, but ok.
It specifically protects the people of the United States from the government espablishing a national religion (as had been done in Europe). And it specifically prohibits the government from making any law that would prevent the people's ability to exercise their faith. Period.
The words "separation of church and state" occur in a letter Thomas Jefferson wrote to the Danbury Baptist Association in 1802, years after the Constitution had been ratified. They wanted him, as the President, to liberate them from the religious constraints they found themselves under in Connecticut. His response was to quote the first amendment to them, and he used the metaphor of a wall of separation between church and state to show them that as the President and a government official, he could not interfere in their internal, state, religious affairs. He was, in essence, saying that the government must stay out of church business. His metaphor was not a demand for the separation of religion and politics; rather it addressed the principle of federalism. He was saying that the federal government has no right to interfere in what was state of Connecticut business.
I'm not sure anymore on what exactly we are disagreeing.
Also, I am not familiar with the US law system. It seems there were religious laws in Connecticut, but the federal government couldn't interfere? Does it mean state laws overcome national amendments? I really have no idea.
The Federalist Papers and the Anti-Federalist papers are excellent resources for this sort of information. Sorry- I know this is off topic, but I thought a clearer explanation of what you challenged was needed.
~ellie
~ellie
No problem. I think however I'm more confused now than before