Water Baptism-What Does God's Word Say?

Here is an article dealing with this topic: https://carm.org/should-we-baptize-name-father-son-and-holy-spirit-or-name-jesus

Some quotes from it:

"The proper form of baptism is in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as Jesus designated in Matt. 28:19, "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." The clear command of Jesus is to baptize this way. But, if that is so, then why do we see so many instances in the New Testament where people were baptized "in Jesus' name"?

The reason they were baptizing "in the name of Jesus" is not because it was a formula, but because the phrase, "in the name of" means "in the authority of.

"in the name of Jesus" speaks of "in the authority of Jesus." Therefore, when someone is properly baptized, they are baptized in the name of Jesus; that is, by the authority of Jesus. Therefore, when they are properly baptized in the name of Jesus, they should say, "I baptize you in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit," just as Jesus commanded us to do."

The Didache is not Scripture, but it is clearly an ancient document and sheds light on what the early church was doing in the first century and what the baptismal formula was.

"But concerning baptism, thus baptize ye: having first recited all these precepts, baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in running water," (Didache 7:1).

If the early church did what some modern-day groups like the Oneness Pentecostal cult do and baptized "in the name of Jesus," then why does the Didache not teach the same thing? The reason is because the early church baptized in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, just as Jesus commanded them to do ( Matthew 28:19)."

All biblical records of water baptisms performed indicate the use of Jesus name. (Acts 2:38, 8:12, 10:44-48, 19:1-6, 22:16) Also, as provided previously there is clear historical evidence that Jesus name was used prior to 325 a.d. when the Romans instituted the use of the formula in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.

The apostles would never have followed something other than what Jesus said to do.

We are told we will be judged by the Word of God and no other.
"He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day." John 12:48

The baptism of Jesus Christ by John the baptizer, was to fulfill the requirements of the Nazarite priesthood.

But I just provided documentation that "The Father Son and Holy Spirit" were used by the early church PRIOR to 325??? Didache is from the 1st century.

I have a 1907 Catholic Encyclopedia that clearly states they made the change. Even so, what the bible records is what should be followed. One cannot go wrong duplicating what the apostles taught. We are told to earnestly seek what the apostles did regarding the common salvation. Jude 3

I would think when the Son of man, Jesus from the tribe of Judah was baptized by John from the tribe of Levi baptized the new manner of priesthood of believers after the order of Melchizedek was introduced fulfilling the prophecy of Joel.

Today Christianity represents the Kingdom of priest sent as Ambassadors of a foreign land ..The new heavenly Jerusalem. Calling all believers who desire to be a part of the kingdom of priest, "kings". Like that of the Noble Bereans.

Acts 2:15-17 King James Version (KJV) But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:

The priesthood was no longer Hebrew in respect to the tribe of Levi. It was now after all the nations of the world after the order of Melchizedek.

Psalm 110:4 The Lord hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.

"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:
Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy." 1 Peter 2:9-10

did Yeshua take a Nazarite vow in order to be able to attend the altar, offering Himself as a sacrifice for us?

I would think he did. There are a few things that seem to indicate that. He would seem to have been a Nazarite from birth .The first mention of a sect on this side of the reformation in which Paul was one of leaders of that denomination. The unbelieving Jews call him a ringer.

For we have found this man a pestilent fellow, and a mover of sedition among all the Jews throughout the world, and a ringleader of the sect of the Nazarenes:

It might be helpful to study baptisms of the Jews to see why and how this was performed before John the Baptist came on the scene to prepare for the coming of Jesus. Am not going to speak of it here....study for yourselves. It will clear up a lot of confusion.

so then we agree that He was baptized to fulfill the requirement of the Nazarite priesthood

so? you had an urge to improve on my post? what was your point?
think on this

did Yeshua take a Nazarite vow in order to be able to attend the altar, offering Himself as a sacrifice for us?

My point was that all are called to follow the command to be water baptized in Jesus name--being called into a royal priesthood.

"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:

Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy." 1 Peter 2:9-10

It might be helpful to study baptisms of the Jews to see why and how this was performed before John the Baptist came on the scene to prepare for the coming of Jesus. Am not going to speak of it here....study for yourselves. It will clear up a lot of confusion.

Will say this though....Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness. It doesn't quite finish the thought though. Righteousness of what? It's the law. Preparation for the Priesthood, and too...anointing of the King. Authority.

To end my post I will give what Jesus said out of the Hebrew version of Matthew about baptizing.
"all authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore, go and make people from all nations into talmidim, immersing them into the reality of the Father, the Son, and the Ruach HaKodesh, and teaching them to obey everything that I have commanded you. And remember! I will be with you always, yes, even until the end of the age.

The Jews had many forms of baptisms. John was preaching turn from sin to God. Similar the Jews with turning from pagan idols to Jewry. Baptism into the Torah.


The reality of the Father, Son, and the Ruach HaKodesh is being baptized or immersed into the body of our Lord Jesus Christ. Discipled or taught what we have received with our new birth. Water baptism is good for teaching death to the flesh, and alive to God. But the circumcision made without physical hands....is the action of God upon us in every way. From the natural man to the spiritual man.

The baptism of Holy Spirit can be separate from and/ or accompanied with water baptism. Its the release of what is given to our Spirit, to give to the world. Power of words, acts, and fruit.

The only law I see working here as an absolute is the Law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus.

My point was that all are called to follow the command to be water baptized in Jesus name--being called into a royal priesthood.

"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:

Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy." 1 Peter 2:9-10

There are NOT two baptisms,
None is made by water.
The only baptism is the one a person gets when born again. Baptizo - to fully immerse. We are then fully immersed in the full ministry of the Holy Spirit BY THE HOLY SPIRIT, which is to convict of sin, teach, comfort, etc.



I saw no WATER in those scriptures you posted.
Tertullian's letter to Perpetua on water baptism is that it gets you wet.

The ususal verse posted as THE authority on water baptism:
Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-- through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,
1 Peter 3:21

I was baptized by immersion early in my "born again" days.......but if I had to do it over again I would not.
I have heard it said that this baptism is an outward sign of an inward change.....but obviously people get water baptizsed with no change at all. But by all means.......please your flesh.

A bit grumpy are we grace and truth?

I actually believe that we are birthed into Jesus Christ from His side....pierced and water and blood flowed. But, am not teaching this. I've not seen it taught or revealed to anyone else.

The point of my post was its helpful to know what was taught in Jewish customs in order to see the truth of the body of Christ. We go from glory to glory.

When the priests would enter the temple or tabernacle to minister, they would wash self, and place linen garments on for linen causes no sweat.

All these revelations increase our understanding of being the new creation man or woman. Spiritual, receiving from Holy Spirit, to give out to others. Not of works of righteousness that we do, but according to His mercy and grace....for all.

I think you are just reading "grumpy" into it