Acts 2:32

In Acts 2:32 is God referring to all three Persons of the Trinity, or is it referring only to the Father?

Acts 2:32 KJV: This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.

When understood, Isaiah 9;6 makes it clear that Jesus, Yeshua, is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, but it has to be read and understood, no read and believed fdirst.

I think if we fo to colossioans, we see the same person who raised jesus from the dead also baptises us with the spiritual circumcision which cleanses us from all sin

This would be the HS, not the Father the Father however is the author of the plan, and had to grant the HS permission to do what he did

This verse makes it interesting.

Matthew 24:36
No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.

I assume the Son reference is Jesus how is it he doesn’t know?

This is a reference to God the Father. But there are other Scriptures which confirm that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit were all involved with the resurrection of Christ. It could not be otherwise.

So what do you make of the verse when it says nor the Son?

One only need do two things, think and believe…..

Yes and I think, there is a reason Jesus didn’t know who touched him, he only knew that power had gone out from him.

Jesus, although His has always been the authority to judge, so humble, He lived in the flesh in all manner as do we, however He was born it seems, knowing just Who He is and what His mission was.

He, the one with the Father , mayjudge all because He had also the same temptations and weakness we all share, but becuse He knw just Who He was, and IS, He endured all an dconquered all for each of us.

Remember when He was risen fro the dead, Firstborn, He told the woman not to touch Him for He had not yet been fully dtransfigured. He rose physically, and was transfigured afdterwards, just as H weill raise us all and make us all just as is He. We will not be Jesus, but we will be just like He is. Now that isa lot to take in, but, it is true.

Has heaven and earth passed away?

the verse I posted is not a reference to the woman touching his garment.

though that was interesting.

All three persons are there, with Jesus being the principle.

Jesus, who blessed us with the Holy Spirit from the Father is alive and sitting at the right hand of God the Father.

David spoke of him when he said, “The Lord told my Lord to sit at his right side, until he made my Lord’s enemies into a footstool for him.”

Everyone in Israel should know that even though you put him to death on a cross, He is alive for evermore. This is our Lord and Saviour who you killed and is risen from the dead.

When the people heard this, they realised they had killed the promised Messiah. What should we do they asked in great distress? Peter replied, “Turn back to God! Be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ and He will forgive your sins. This promise is for you and your children for all time, no matter where they live.”

After telling them much more Peter said again, “Repent, and be baptised every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins and on that day about three thousand believed his message and were baptised.

(Act 2:32-41 paraphrased by PS)

I'm sorry to say jaumej that your statement above is false. Isaiah 9:6 is "NOT" teaching that Jesus Christ is the person of God Father, nor is Jesus Christ the person of the Holy Spirit. What you are believing is what is known as "Modalism." This is what the Oneness Pentecostals teach and it is a heretical theology that the early church fathers debunked.

Here is the definition.
mod·al·ism
/ˈmodlˌizəm/
noun
noun: modalism

1. 
   
2. 1.
   Theology
   the doctrine that the persons of the Trinity represent only three modes or aspects of the divine revelation, not distinct and coexisting persons in the divine nature. In other words the one God is "playing" three different roles. The following example will explain it.
   I'm a son to my father, I'm also a father becasue I have children, I'm also a husband because I'm married and yet I am one and the same person.
   
   
   
   It sure sounds good but it is unbiblical. The One God is not acting or playing different roles. Modalism does uphold the deity of Jesus Christ but it does not see Him as a distinct Person from the Father and the Holy Spirit. And because it abandons the diversity of Persons within the Godhead, it loses the important concept that Christ is our representive or advocate with the Father.
   
   What do I mean? Look at 1 Timothy 2:5, "For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus." The point of this is to show that if the Son Jesus Christ is God the Father the Son cannot really represent us to the Father. Why? Because in Modalism they are one and the same person."
   
   So then, what is Isaiah 9:6 teaching? It is teaching that Jesus Christ is the father of eternity, or the orgin of eternity, the "architect" of all that is created. It's akin to George Washington being the father of our country. He was the key figure during the Revolutionay War, the Constitutional Convention, and he served two terms as the FIRST President. That is why he was known as the father of our country.

Btw, John 14 is "NOT" teaching that Jesus is God the Father either. Now, getting back to the
this thread. All three persons of the Trinity raised Jesus Christ from the dead. John 2:19,
"Jesus answered and said to them, "Destroy this temple and in three days I WILL RASIE IT UP."
John 2:21, "But He was speaking of the temple of His body."

And at Romans 6:4 we have God the Father rasing Jesus from the dead. Then at Romans 8:11
it says, "But if the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He who raised
Christ Jesus from the dead will also give life to your motral bodies through His Spirit who
indwells you." Please notice the "distinction" of persons within the Godhead in this one
verse. In short, all three persons raised Jesus Christ from the dead. Any questions I will be
happy to address.

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

Yes the reference of nor the Son comes from these verses. who’s the Son of Man mentioned in 37

Matt 24
35Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will never pass away.
36No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. 37As it was in the days of Noah, so will it be at the coming of the Son of Man.

what day I think is pointing to when the earth and heaven pass away.

Verse 35 of Matthew is the end of the parable of the fig tree and even has a sub-heading in most versions. Whereas verse 36 starts the saying that no one know the day and hour of His return.

The Lesson of the Fig Tree
Matt 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
Matt 24:33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
Matt 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
Matt 24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

No One Knows That Day and Hour
Matt 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Matt 24:37 But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
Matt 24:38 For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark,

Yes and that day mentioned in verse 36 is speaking of what day, either it’s the coming of the Son or when the earth and heaven are gone.

the verses in those Bibles that do not use nor the Son has but My father only.

Could you possibly post the verses and maybe your reasoning behind the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit all being involved?