Can you know the date and time of Christ Return?

So it says it still over the OT?

I've been studying this very topic for 3 weeks now. Here are my findings....hope it helps.

We must first look at the parable of the fig tree,

“Now learn this parable from the fig tree: When its branch has already become tender and puts forth leaves, you know that summer is near. So you also, when you see all these things, know that it is near—at the doors! Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place. Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will by no means pass away.

In my studies the fig tree represents Israel. So we know that Israel is a time line. We know that Israel has been scattered throughout the world. So how and when does the fig tree begin to bloom again?

In 1948 Israel became a nation again. In one day just as it was spoken in prophecy. Never has any nation ever done this.

Now looking at the text again Jesus says " this generation shall not pass untill all these things take place.

So now the question is how long is a generation? Could it be 80 yrs from 1948 which gives us 2028?
If so we have 10 yrs left.

The day or hour could also be a common phrase used in that day about the watchmen looking for the new moon which begins the start of the Sabbath feast of attonement. Where watchmen would look for the slightest sliver of the new moon in the sky.
The watchmen were placed out there because no man knew the day or hour it would appear.

Still studying this much debated topic....hope this helps....God bless.

Maybe look at the source of a 2nd coming in the OT. Oh wait there isn't.
Damn

Ezekiel, Chapters 37, 38, 39...

It doesn't say you CAN'T know.

Mat 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.

Let me tell you what that verse says and what it doesn't say.

It doesn't say you CAN'T know.
It was said to specific people (the disciples)
It was said at a specific time (during the Olivet prophecy).
It shows that the Father is the one with the knowledge of the Day and Hour.

I want to dispel this satanic usage of this verse in which it is used to say we CAN'T know.

Now it says the Father is the one that knows. Who does the Father give His knowledge to and how? (think about that very hard for a moment).

God has set the course of redemption through the process of Faith (TRUST).

Who does God Trust?

Consider this verse:

Rev 3:2 Be watchful, and strengthen the things which remain, that are ready to die: for I have not found thy works perfect before God.
Rev 3:3 Remember therefore how thou hast received and heard, and hold fast, and repent. If therefore thou shalt not watch, I will come on thee as a thief, and thou shalt not know what hour I will come upon thee.

Now consider the verse above where bolded. If the Lord says He is coming as a thief in the night upon those that will not know the hour in which He comes if they Don't watch. Therefore, reasoning would be that if your watching then you know when God is coming.

Isn't God going to give those of His the knowledge of the Hour? Consider further:

Mat 24:43 But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up.

Read that verse again until you get it - it say if the goodman knows the watch then he would watch.

But let's look at the real proof verses here:

Act 1:6 When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?
Act 1:7 And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.
Act 1:8 But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.

So here the disciples are in Jerusalem and awaiting Pentecost and the receipt of the Holy Spirit. They can't know the day or hour because they don't have the Holy Spirit. Only the Father can reveal the time and hour by means of His Spirit. Notice the context of the question they asked and the Answer to that question. They are effectively told that they would know the Time and Seasons in God's Power AFTER they receive the Holy Spirit.

Just because many are wrong about the times and hours, etc.. doesn't mean that it can't be known. Remember it says it would as it was in Noah's day. And Noah knew the time when the floods would come BEFORE they came.

Hope this helps.

Just because many are wrong about the times and hours, etc.. doesn't mean that it can't be known. Remember it says it would as it was in Noah's day. And Noah knew the time when the floods would come BEFORE they came.

Can you show where it says we CAN'T know the hour?

right

because saying only God knows really means only God knows but if we twist verses real real hard we can make them into our very own religion

At the time Jesus spoke His Olivet Discourse, it was true that "only God knows" (but of that day and hour NO MAN KNOWS [PERFECT indicative]" not even Jesus, at that time).

But some sixty years after His resurrection/ascension, He had a writer write this:

"The revelation of Jesus Christ, WHICH GOD GAVE UNTO HIM [unto Jesus] TO SHEW UNTO His bond-servants [see 7:3] what things it behooves to take place in quickness [this phrase necessarily refers to the "future" aspects of the Book, like in 1:19c]. And He signified it through having sent His angel to His servant, John..."

and that "further information" on THAT Subject, was disclosed therein (in that Book of Revelation). In it, there are numerous time-stamps, day-amounts, and other "connections" (to other Scripture references) that enable one to lay it out on a framework, so to speak.

Matthew 24:36/Mark 13:32 are not worded like "no one CAN EVER know" or "no one WILL EVER know" or even "it is FORBIDDEN to know" or "IMPOSSIBLE to know"... It is using the "PERFECT indicative," so to translate it in such a way would be to CHANGE its meaning. It is not saying those.

"PERFECT tense" means it has been true and is true at the time spoken, and is true until further information changes that status. And I believe THAT is what Rev1:1 is exactly stating. [per the LATER 95ad writing of it, or thereabouts--like the SEQUENCE being shown in Matthew 22:7 (70ad events) and THEN Matthew 22:8 "THEN SAITH HE to his servants" necessarily comes AFTER those 70ad events... but Jesus was up in Heaven "after" the 70ad events... ]

as oyster already said, the OT never gave an exact time for the first coming either

He'll probably return on March 3, 2033.

I'm just kidding around, of course. But hey....then again....my guess is as good as anyone else's right?

Acts 1, shows that you can know by the means of the Holy Spirit.