All things James

No, but the body of Christ is in the twelve tribes of Israel.

No, you just think he's contradicting Paul, and that's why this doctrine of your's was thought up. It tries to answer what is perceived to be a contradiction between Paul's justification and James' justification.

Not only is James a Christian letter, it is one of the best and most useful of them.

What does the tribulation have to do with anything?
The Christian faith is the Christian faith, period.
This letter is useful and applicable to any Christian, Jewish or gentile, at any period of time from the resurrection onward.

When is the body of Christ scattered abroad?

Why does James condemn the rich all throughout his letter? Could it be that those who are rich in the tribulation have received the mark and sided with the anti-Christ?

There is no contradiction when you realize the different audiences. Btw, James is not talking about how faith will follow works as most commentators falsely claim. They have no idea how to rightly divide the word of truth.

Hi,
1st, I agree James is writing to Christian Jews. I think it's a stretch to include gentiles in his writings.

James was written between 38 & 49 AD. to Israelites still required to observe Mosaic laws, circumcision etc.

It's not until the council at Jerusalem 50-51 AD. Where after a vigorous debate (Acts 15:5-24) the Apostles conclude gentiles are not required to be circumcised or adhere to Mosaic laws (Acts 15:24). The gentile Gospel of salvation isn't found in James Epistle.

Jews, including the Lord himself (Matt 15:26) often referred to Gentiles as unclean "dogs". (See Matt 7:6; Lk 16:21)

Prior to the council at Jerusalem gentiles were considered bastards outside of covenant seals, so ungodly, simply being in their presence could make a Jew ceremonially unclean

Jn 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.
(NOTE: The Jews wouldn't even walk into the Roman/gentile judgment hall, lest they should be defiled/become unclean. They wouldn't enter because they wanted to eat the Passover meal on the next day. There was a 7 day ritual cleansing period that had to be honored once deemed unclean. Contact with a dead person or animal, a woman during her menstrual cycle etc.

Acts 10:28 Peter said unto them, Ye know how that it is an ""unlawful"" thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean
(NOTE: Peter tells Cornelius a gentile. IT'S UNLAWFUL for a Jew to keep company with a gentile)

Romans 15:4 (A) For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning,
(NOTE: ALL scripture is written for our learning. However, ALL scripture isn't written for our DOCTRINE. Example: Are we required to bring a sin sacrifice to the Temple priest?)

Do you not think the address “twelve tribes” is addressing the whole nation of Israel, believing or not? Every other usage in Scripture is always referring to the nation as a whole. Also, there were some who obviously needed to receive the word and have their souls saved. James is asking them to receive the word which can save their souls.

21 Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.

I believe James wanted every Jew to know/except Jesus as Lord. The scattering begins 35-36 AD when Stephen is stoned. The Twelve Tribes (not gentiles) is who James ministry is focused on. Some of them were scattered others weren't. So, ALL Jews saved/unsaved is my belief.

Though not written to gentiles, I believe gentiles can glean many truths from James writings.