Is Matthew 24 the rapture ?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Blain

Blain

The Word Weaver
#41
Aug 28, 2012
19,212
2,547
113
#41
throughfaith said:
Can you demonstrate that Luke 9.6 there preaching the death , burial and resurrection for our sins ?
Click to expand...
There is only one Gospel and that is the gospel of Jesus Christ people make the mistake of differencing the one true gospel as kingdom gospel grace gospel salvation gospel but the fact is they are all one and the same as the only gospel that saves and that brings us into his kingdom with salvation is in fact the gospel of Jesus Christ
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#42
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#42
Scribe said:
Maybe it has been fulfilled today. I used to wonder about the North Sentinelese and whether they still need to be reached, but maybe John Chau's efforts were considered reaching them even though they never actually have been communicated with, they killed him to quickly to establish any communication. But maybe their act of murder counts against them as a rejection.

And if it has been fulfilled then the end might be very near. We must live like it will be tomorrow. The offer has been extended to all the world but not every person has heard. It is possible that some in every nation have been reached. We must be getting close to that.
Click to expand...
It had been fulfilled 2,000 years ago with the preaching of Paul and his converts. It's obvious that the gospel of the kingdom is not what Paul preached but the gospel of the grace of God. Paul never preached the gospel of the kingdom.
 
T

throughfaith

Well-known member
#43
Aug 4, 2020
10,467
1,593
113
#43
Blain said:
There is only one Gospel and that is the gospel of Jesus Christ people make the mistake of differencing the one true gospel as kingdom gospel grace gospel salvation gospel but the fact is they are all one and the same as the only gospel that saves and that brings us into his kingdom with salvation is in fact the gospel of Jesus Christ
Click to expand...

let's see .
1cor 15
1¶Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3¶For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

Are they preaching this good news in luke 9.6 ?
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#44
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#44
Blain said:
There is only one Gospel and that is the gospel of Jesus Christ people make the mistake of differencing the one true gospel as kingdom gospel grace gospel salvation gospel but the fact is they are all one and the same as the only gospel that saves and that brings us into his kingdom with salvation is in fact the gospel of Jesus Christ
Click to expand...
The gospel of grace is the good news of the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ for our sins. Jesus nor His disciples preached this gospel before the cross, but did preach the gospel of the kingdom. It was meant only for Jews because it concerned the promise of the restoration of the kingdom of Israel.
 
Blain

Blain

The Word Weaver
#45
Aug 28, 2012
19,212
2,547
113
#45
John146 said:
The gospel of grace is the good news of the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ for our sins. Jesus nor His disciples preached this gospel before the cross, but did preach the gospel of the kingdom. It was meant only for Jews because it concerned the promise of the restoration of the kingdom of Israel.
Click to expand...
So you mean before the cross there were more than one gospel but after the cross there is only one that saves?
 
T

throughfaith

Well-known member
#46
Aug 4, 2020
10,467
1,593
113
#46
Blain said:
So you mean before the cross there were more than one gospel but after the cross there is only one that saves?
Click to expand...
Gospel means ' good news ' . Before the cross their was a good news . After the cross there is another good news .
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#47
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#47
Blain said:
So you mean before the cross there were more than one gospel but after the cross there is only one that saves?
Click to expand...
Nope, before the cross, the only gospel being preached was the gospel of the kingdom. The Lord and His disciples preached this only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Miracles were present because the Jews seek after a sign to believe the message.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#48
#48
John146 said:
The two passages use the same wording, "in all the world." Dance around the clear meaning if you want, but I believe every word of God. I do not put my trust in commentaries, that's for sure.

Matthew 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

Colossians 1
5 For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel;
6 Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth:
Click to expand...
You don't have to trust commentaries to read them. Reading comprehension skills and common sense are all that is required to understand Col 1:6 .

It is a way of saying that the message has been sent to all the world. You know full well that not every nation at the time Col was written had heard the Gospel of Jesus Christ yet. Are you thinking that American Indians had heard? Which tribe? All of them?

It's pretty obvious to anyone who reads it that he did not mean that aboriginals in Australia had heard the Gospel. So what did he mean? It is commonsense to interpret it as "where ever it has come into all the world it brings forth fruit as it has in you"

You don't have to trust commentaries but since you are making such an elementary mistake I would highly suggest that you reference them, as that might help you notice when you are making such mistakes.

There is no question that you are making a mistake about thinking that all people had heard the gospel when Col was written, the only question is how long it will take you to discover why you were confused. How is it that your interpretation that everyone in the world had heard was ok with you? Why did you not have an issue with that interpretation. That is the real question here.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#49
#49
John146 said:
Nope, before the cross, the only gospel being preached was the gospel of the kingdom. The Lord and His disciples preached this only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Miracles were present because the Jews seek after a sign to believe the message.
Click to expand...
What kind of church do you go to? Do they teach this?
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#50
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#50
Scribe said:
You don't have to trust commentaries to read them. Reading comprehension skills and common sense are all that is required to understand Col 1:6 .

It is a way of saying that the message has been sent to all the world. You know full well that not every nation at the time Col was written had heard the Gospel of Jesus Christ yet. Are you thinking that American Indians had heard? Which tribe? All of them?

It's pretty obvious to anyone who reads it that he did not mean that aboriginals in Australia had heard the Gospel. So what did he mean? It is commonsense to interpret it as "where ever it has come into all the world it brings forth fruit as it has in you"

You don't have to trust commentaries but since you are making such an elementary mistake I would highly suggest that you reference them, as that might help you notice when you are making such mistakes.

There is no question that you are making a mistake about thinking that all people had heard the gospel when Col was written, the only question is how long it will take you to discover why you were confused. How is it that your interpretation that everyone in the world had heard was ok with you? Why did you not have an issue with that interpretation. That is the real question here.
Click to expand...
Is Matthew 24 usage of "all the world" different than its usage in Colossians 1? Explain.
 
Blain

Blain

The Word Weaver
#51
Aug 28, 2012
19,212
2,547
113
#51
throughfaith said:
Gospel means ' good news ' . Before the cross their was a good news . After the cross there is another good news .
Click to expand...
I do believe that correctly separating and understanding who he was talking to and what was being spoken at that time however that is correctly, in this the issue is that the kingdom gosepl is for the jews but the Jews even to this day have rejected Christ

The issue with kingdom gospel is that it is indeeed supposed to be meant for the jews in this kind of thinking but we are brought into the kingdom without the kingdom gospel only by the blood of Jesus so what I don't understand is why preach the kingdom gospel to the jews but we are brought in by his blood when the jews seeme to have to work for their entry in this?
 
Blain

Blain

The Word Weaver
#53
Aug 28, 2012
19,212
2,547
113
#53
John146 said:
Nope, before the cross, the only gospel being preached was the gospel of the kingdom. The Lord and His disciples preached this only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Miracles were present because the Jews seek after a sign to believe the message.
Click to expand...
So do you think this was preached in this way because of the end times when Israel will be brought back to his kingdom in the tribulation?
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#54
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#54
Blain said:
I do believe that correctly separating and understanding who he was talking to and what was being spoken at that time however that is correctly, in this the issue is that the kingdom gosepl is for the jews but the Jews even to this day have rejected Christ

The issue with kingdom gospel is that it is indeeed supposed to be meant for the jews in this kind of thinking but we are brought into the kingdom without the kingdom gospel only by the blood of Jesus so what I don't understand is why preach the kingdom gospel to the jews but we are brought in by his blood when the jews seeme to have to work for their entry in this?
Click to expand...
In this current age, the gospel of grace brings both Jews and Gentiles into the body of Christ. The gospel of the kingdom will be in effect once again when the fulness of the Gentiles be come in and God once again initiates His plan for the nation of Israel by restoring thier kingdom with Jesus on the throne of David.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#55
#55
John146 said:
It had been fulfilled 2,000 years ago with the preaching of Paul and his converts. It's obvious that the gospel of the kingdom is not what Paul preached but the gospel of the grace of God. Paul never preached the gospel of the kingdom.
Click to expand...
Since you and throughfaith teach this same two gospel idea I am assuming it is coming from some organize group I am not aware of.

Neither of you seem to be willing to give it up. Are you afraid of being associated with it? I will see if I can google it.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#56
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
#56
throughfaith said:
Can you demonstrate that Luke 9.6 there preaching the death , burial and resurrection for our sins ?
Click to expand...
Yes. The gospel is defined here. The word of truth IS the gospel.

Eph 1:13 (KJV) In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#57
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#57
Blain said:
So do you think this was preached in this way because of the end times when Israel will be brought back to his kingdom in the tribulation?
Click to expand...
I believe it will be preached again during the tribulation by the two witnesses and the 144,000. They will be preparing the Jews to receive their Messiah and King.
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#58
Jan 13, 2016
17,128
3,689
113
#58
KJV1611 said:
Yes. The gospel is defined here. The word of truth IS the gospel.

Eph 1:13 (KJV) In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,
Click to expand...
You truly believe the disciples went around preaching a message they themselves did not believe or have any understanding?
 
Blain

Blain

The Word Weaver
#59
Aug 28, 2012
19,212
2,547
113
#59
John146 said:
I believe it will be preached again during the tribulation by the two witnesses and the 144,000. They will be preparing the Jews to receive their Messiah and King.
Click to expand...
I suppose that makes sense, in fact when Jesus sent his apostles to preach the gospel didn't he send them two by two? and if I am not mistaken each of the 12 apostles were from the 12 tribes of Israel 12 times 12 is 144 so perhaps this is another time when bible prophecy foreshadows itself
 
T

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
#60
Aug 3, 2018
10,887
2,113
113
#60
Please do not confuse the fact that it [that is, relationship with God] has ALWAYS been by/through "FAITH"... [not to confuse] with that of the following, which pertains to "chronology and timing" issues (as these each relate to the term "good news [/gospel]"):

--Matthew 24:14 [26:13] is what WILL BE being preached in the future, specific. limited time-period leading UP TO His Second Coming to the earth (at Rev19), that is IN/DURING/WITHIN the 7-yr trib; it INCLUDES the msg that "the kingdom" will be (at that time) VERY NEAR!; we are not preaching "this particular msg" NOW (and we will not be present on the earth WHEN it WILL BE being preached! ;) )

--1Cor15:1-4 [and 2Cor5:18-20] (as "ambassadors") is what message is going out NOW


Again... these are CHRONOLOGY/TIMING issues... It does not suggest that there are various WAYS to Heaven (so to speak), or relationship to God... (as many SUPPOSE is what is being said, by this)...

but rather, relates to the matter of "WHEN" a person comes to faith :) [whether "NOW" or "IN THE TRIB YRS," or "IN OT TIMES" for that matter... It is always a matter of "FAITH"... but the TIMING is what is DISTINCT, and the particular msgs that apply in each of those particular time-slots, see)
 
You must log in or register to reply here.