To what extent does the OT apply to Christians?

...well for that person's perception ...it is unclean...but, that does not change the controlling scripture.

Example..I know a person who believes he must face the east in prayer. That is his persuasion but, scripture is not altered by that individual assessment.

The observation is that scripture does not point to a one-size-fits-all solution in many cases. Pork may be clean to some but unclean to others. Uncleanness is to be avoided. Therefore pork is to be avoided by some but not necessarily by others.

"Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry: For which things' sake the wrath of God cometh on the children of disobedience:" - Colossians 3:5-6 KJV

It's not that our opinion changes scripture, merely that scripture is built in such a way that our opinion (how we feel about something) is part of the equation in many cases.

Yet ‘how we feel about something’ has no bearing on the validity of Scripture.
It would be like a match of ‘God vs Us’. It would last a nanosecond.

It's not about the validity of scripture, it is about how scripture applies.

I was comparing the validity of Scripture with our feelings, not the validity of Scripture and how it applies.

The OT is for Christians to learn from(Romans 15:4 ). We tend to extract prinicles from texts(Homesexuality thing). Those of us who walk in the Spirit are no longer under the law(Romans 8). Romans 14 gives us freedom to worship on Sunday which is the day Jesus Rose from the dead(Gospels first day of week). The OT 613 laws in general are used to expose where we are disobeying God's laws.

https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearch/?qs_version=KJV&quicksearch="first+day"&begin=47&end=73

Romans 6:14
For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.

Galatians 5:18
But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

Some israeli people are yes.
Greek yes
Hamitic who dat
Nordic yes very, the definition of the word.

I said Egyptians cause the Bible teaches jews look like egyptians

Paul was mistaken for an egyptian, WHY? Cause he looked similar.
Im not part of the woke crowd dont even go there.

But are you folks SERIOUSLY trying to tell me, that in the ancient middle-east, you had PALE SKINNED people just hanging around in the desert, and they were native to the land? IF you are, you are lacking some serious common sense....

Where in Scripture?

Again, where does it say that?

You don't seriously think that most people here think that Middle Easterners have pale skin, do you?
To bring up such thoughts leaves a suspicious 'woke' in your path.

Some?

Yes, Israel is a democracy in the middle-east with black people, white people, arabs etc. etc.

Here is the verse:

Acts 21:38 38“ Aren’t you the Egyptian who incited a rebellion some time ago and led four thousand members of the ‘Assassins’ into the wilderness?” 39But Paul answered, “I am a Jew from Tarsus in Cilicia

Another reference would be the Moses / egyptians. But thats in the NT so its more releavant

IF you think im part of the woke crowd u must be new here. Im the racist bigot caveman stuck in the past homophobe islamophobe you name it.

Yes Paul was confused by one person who mistook him for an Egyptian but the Bible doesn’t teach that. Some townsfolk mistook Paul for being one of the gods, but the Bible doesn’t teach that either …

Acts 14:11 KJV
[11] And when the people saw what Paul had done, they lifted up their voices, saying in the speech of Lycaonia, The gods are come down to us in the likeness of men.

Well if you dont want to believe it then go ahead.

If you want to believe people in the 1st century were so retarded they couldnt figure out the difference between an egyptian and an irish looking don, go ahead.

Seems like retardation is common TODAY.

Thanks for your permission. Believe what?

Did I say that?

Implying what?

Look at Israeli's today. Hope that helps you.