Jesus' Command in Matthew 28:19

I don't want to hurt your feelings, but the idea that all prophecies must be fulfilled before anyone can be saved is a bit..... odd.

Anyone who wishes to understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 28:19 need only to look up each detailed water baptism recorded. (Acts 2:38-41, 8:12-18, 10:44-48, 19:1-6, 22:16) The evidence is in the word itself.

The actual words of the Lord Jesus Christ (Mt 28:19) after His resurrection, and after ALL POWER AND AUTHORITY IN HEAVEN AND ON EARTH were handed to Him have more weight than anything else. So the evidence is in the recorded words of Christ by divine inspiration. And all Christians have taken those as binding until the Oneness Pentecostals came along and muddied the waters.

For all we know the other accounts in Acts simply acknowledge the fact that the Son is included with the Father and the Holy Spirit by only referring to "Jesus".

What do you mean by "all prophecies must be fulfilled before anyone can be saved"?

I don't want to hurt your feelings, but the idea that all prophecies must be fulfilled before anyone can be saved is a bit..... odd.

There you go lying about what I said again.

I posted:


Try to pull off this stunt again, and I will report you.

I know

I know you know I know. We must be careful about these things.

Jesus had to die on the cross. That happened at one point.
Jesus had to rise from the grave. That happened at a different point.
The apostles had to believe. That happened at yet another point.
Jesus had to depart (ascend) to his father. That's another aspect that happened at another point.
And we haven't even reached the outpouring of the Holy Ghost. (which happened at yet another point.)

“Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:5‬ ‭

I guess we need to educate you about the birds and the bees right here in BDF??? I am just sayin' that the first birth doesn't usually happen in a baptismal tub. (I suppose it is theoretically possible .)

@oyster67
What I was saying is that each piece accomplishes something specific, and accomplishing one piece does not negate the need for the other piece.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby

The actual words of the Lord Jesus Christ (Mt 28:19) after His resurrection, and after ALL POWER AND AUTHORITY IN HEAVEN AND ON EARTH were handed to Him have more weight than anything else. So the evidence is in the recorded words of Christ by divine inspiration. And all Christians have taken those as binding until the Oneness Pentecostals came along and muddied the waters.

For all we know the other accounts in Acts simply acknowledge the fact that the Son is included with the Father and the Holy Spirit by only referring to "Jesus".

Anyone who wishes to understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 28:19 need only to look up each detailed water baptism recorded. (Acts 2:38-41, 8:12-18, 10:44-48, 19:1-6, 22:16) The evidence is in the word itself. Every water baptism is done in the name of the Lord Jesus. Why? Because it is Jesus who was crucified for mankind. Paul made a point of indicating this in his conversation with the Corinthian's in 1 Cor. 1:12-15. Also relevant is the fact that in Jesus dwells all of the fulness of the Godhead. How do we know this? The bible tells us so, and makes a distinct association with baptism. Colossians 2:9-13.

Those who are interested in seeing who decided churches should use the phrase instead of obey Jesus' command can easily find the answer if they so desire. Do an Internet search.

I guess we need to educate you about the birds and the bees right here in BDF??? I am just sayin' that the first birth doesn't usually happen in a baptismal tub. (I suppose it is theoretically possible .)

I do believe that purporting that the "water" spoken of in John 3:5 is amniotic fluid is an alternate interpretation to what Jesus intended;

And that if anyone banks on that idea, they would be gambling on eternity (and losing) in the event that Jesus meant baptism when He said "water".

John
3:4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and [of] the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

It would indicate that being born of flesh is something different than being born of water;

the Lord would have used the same terminology in both instances.

The actual words of the Lord Jesus Christ (Mt 28:19) after His resurrection, and after ALL POWER AND AUTHORITY IN HEAVEN AND ON EARTH were handed to Him have more weight than anything else. So the evidence is in the recorded words of Christ by divine inspiration. And all Christians have taken those as binding until the Oneness Pentecostals came along and muddied the waters.

For all we know the other accounts in Acts simply acknowledge the fact that the Son is included with the Father and the Holy Spirit by only referring to "Jesus".

John
3:4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and [of] the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

It would indicate that being born of water is being born of womb water.