New Teaching Or Merely Clarification?

In Matthew 5:21-48 Jesus on five occasions says that His hearers have heard the law spoken and then goes on to give explanation of its meaning. In doing so is He expanding the meaning of the law or merely giving the understanding that was engendered in the law all along?

The Law was given to those born with the sinful human nature. There is no grace in the Law. It is purely carrot and stick. Jesus did not make the Law easier to obey. He made it impossible, so revealing the true intent of the Law. The Law was given to prove that we cannot keep the Law. This is intended to bring us to Christ. Once we come to Christ, the Law of Moses has done its work. We who are born again are subject to a new law, which is the "Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus". If we Christians ever wake up to the fact that Christ lives in us to be all that God demands that we should be, we will be transformed immediately. I can vouch for that personally. All that we need is found in just one Person - Christ. God accepts nothing else but that which is done in and through Christ .

Check it out for yourself. I did a study a few years ago. The expression "in Christ" (or in Him, meaning in Christ) occurs over 50 times in the NT. I quit looking after 50 verses. I got the message!

Just gives no new law he magnified laws already given .put the flesh aside to energise the spirit .remember the spirit and flesh war consistently in this life .Jesus makes it clear that no one is without sin and no one can come to the father without a savior .

8Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because of your hardness of heart; but it was not this way from the beginning. 9Now I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman, commits adultery.d”

It is apparent that Jesus is taking away Moses' accommodation for the hardness of heart here, which was contained within the law. And subsequently the sacrificial system was taken away also, leaving no other avenue, for anyone, of reconciliation other than dying with Him, and the only other choice, by default, is dying without Him. And of course, gentiles benefit since this opened the door to them.

"For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there occurs a change of law also." Hebrews 7:12

where in the Mosaic legislation is it written "hate your enemies"? was that a rabbinic addition?

when the Lord Jesus engaged the enemy, He said, "it is written". why does He in this passage say, "you have heard it said"?

sorry... i have questions, but they're real questions.

Yes brother what I’m saying is the law was changed when the priesthood was changed when the covenant changed

“If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭7:11-12‬ ‭KJV‬‬

A change of the law “ you have heard it was said in old times but I tell you”

Jesus is of a different ordination and preisthood spoke a new word a better covenant not the old improved but a new that is witnessed in tbe old ie “ I will make a new covenant not according to the old which they broke “

In the old covenant hidden among the law there’s a witness saying “ one day the messiah will come and give you the covenant he will speak Gods words of requirement and offer salvstion to all you sinners who turn from sin

It’s like how night changes into day the same day but one is dark and the other is all lit up

@Cameron143

I wrote about the covenant under Melchizedek a while back. Perhaps you'll find it interesting.

https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...-of-god-the-priesthood-of-melchizedek.200822/

In Matthew 5:21-48 Jesus on five occasions says that His hearers have heard the law spoken and then goes on to give explanation of its meaning. In doing so is He expanding the meaning of the law or merely giving the understanding that was engendered in the law all along?

Here's something I posted a while ago as an example of the differences between the old covenant and the new:

It is helpful for us to compare between the old commandment and the new. The reference to a “new” commandment by implication implies that there was an “old” commandment. So what is the “old” commandment?

The “old” commandment is found in Matthew, chapter 22:34-36, “Hearing that Jesus had silenced the Sadducees, the Pharisees got together. One of them, an expert in the law, tested him with this question: ‘Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?’”

Now, you’ll note that. Indeed, a lawyer, under the law could only ask Him a question about the law. He couldn’t ask Him about the new commandment; he was unaware of the new commandment. So the context of this question and the answer, both have to do with the law. What is the greatest commandment?

Matthew 22:37-40 “Jesus replied: ‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ This is the first and greatest commandment. And the second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’ All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments.’” (Inserted-Matthew 22:37-40)

His answer, summarized the teachings of the Law and the Prophets and in this, His answer is solidly to be found in the Law. This is the very thing that is to be replaced. But today most people think if you keep the 10 commandments and if you love your neighbor as yourself then you have done everything that God could have required. Now if you look at these two commandments you will immediately observe that they are foundationally different. Why? Because the standard is different.

In the first case the “new” commandment has this as the standard: “…as I have loved you, so you should love one another.” The “old” commandment has this: “With all of your capacity to love so you should love God and so you should love one another.” Well you will notice that the standard of the “old” commandment is, of course, appropriate for the Law because the Law can only require you to do as much as it is possible for you to do. Objectively and theoretically it is possible to keep the Law because it does not require any more than all that you are capable of doing. It doesn’t say, “All that you feel like doing,” nor does it say, “All that you want to do.” It says, “All that you are capable of doing.” So when the Law says, “Love the Lord your God with all of your heart...” all of your heart means all of the capacity that lies within you to do. All, in fact, means all. It doesn’t say, “All that you want to do, all that you feel like doing, all that on certain occasions you may be inclined to do.” No, it requires all. So in that sense, the Law and the standard of the Law is not haphazard but it does point out that it is all that is humanly possible. Furthermore, the Law was designed to keep the Jews alive. God could not ask a man to give up his own life under the Law. There was no promise of a new life in the Law. To ask a man to give up his life would be to make the Law unrighteous. A man cannot give up his own life and simultaneously keep his life.

The standard is appropriate for the Law because if the Law asks of anyone more than all then by the existence of the Law you’ve been made lawless. In other words: if it is all plus 10% then the Law makes you lawless because it has exceeded your capacity to respond. But the Law begins and ends with what you can do. And it has a lesser standard for loving your neighbor. Its objective standard regarding loving God is all that you are capable of doing. Its lesser standard in regards to loving your neighbor is, “…as you love yourself.” The presumption is that you love yourself pretty thoroughly. Now what if you didn’t love yourself? The Law simply requires you to love your neighbor in the same fashion, to the same extent.

What is the standard of the new and how is that different? The standard of the new is: “…as I have loved you.” Who is the “I” that is the measurement of this standard? The “I”, of course, is Christ, the one speaking. He is also the Living God. So the standard is: as Jesus has loved us so we are to love one another. Now what if you don’t love yourself? Well that is an irrelevant standard. He didn’t say, “as you love your neighbor, so you should love one another…” or “as I have occasionally loved you so you must love each other.” “As I have loved you” means “I, as God, have loved you perfectly; therefore I require you to love as God loves.” This is a fascinating standard because it’s the same standard for God as it is for man. The standard of love is the same for God as it is for man. That standard of the new commandment makes God and man equal on the matter of love. That’s an incredible observation. On the matter of love, God and man are equal.

Now don’t take my observation for that. Look at this: this is from Matthew5:48, Jesus is speaking. Now this verse of Scripture is very troubling. Matthew 5:48 says, “Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.” What we’ve done is we’ve read that verse out of its context and we have inferred meanings to it that it does not mean. For example we’ve inferred that it means “be perfect in power” and so people come up with thoughts like, “if you’re not healed it’s your fault; you don’t have enough faith, you do not exercise enough power.” So if things go badly it’s your fault. God has given you all power, God has given you all faith, and so on, and if you do these things less than perfectly then it is your fault. Well that’s garbage because God would not require us to be perfect in power, whatever power we have is His power given to us, and no one is made "all powerful". Therefore we could only operate in whatever measures of power He has given us. This Scripture is not about being perfect in power; it’s about being perfect in love.

Note the context: jump back to verse 43 “‘You have heard that it was said, ‘Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ But I tell you: Love your enemies…” (so the context is love) “..and pray for those who persecute you…” Now why should you do that and how is this different? You must do that so that you can be sons of your Father in heaven, "..that you may be sons of your Father in heaven.” It means that just as natural children resemble their natural parents and the nature of natural children is like the nature of their natural parents, so the nature of the children of God is like the God Who is perfect in love. So it’s not surprising to us that the same standard would apply to God as would apply to us… in the matter of love. So that you will be as sons of your Father in heaven.

And then He gives us some examples of how he loves His enemies and does good for those who persecute Him. “He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous…”. Then He contrasts and He says, “If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that? And if you greet only your brothers, what are you doing more than others? Do not even the pagans do that?” In short, to be like your Father in heaven it means that you do not simply love your enemies as you love yourselves or you love your neighbor as yourself; it is that you would love your enemy by preferring them over your own life and in that sense, and within that context it says, “Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect."

The “old” commandment, under the Law, basically required you to love the extent of your capacity to love… love God as much as you are able and to love your neighbor as you are inclined to love yourself. That’s the “old” commandment. The “new” commandment says, “…as I have loved you.” And it establishes Christ as the standard for love. Christ being the Living God, the standard is the same for God as the standard is for man. Now the reason why the standard is the same is because, according to 2 Peter 1:4, the intent of God is that we be made to be partakers of the divine nature…"

“Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature and escape the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.” and "The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of His nature..."

The divine nature, the nature of God, is to love and to love perfectly; to love by preferring the life of another over your own life, to give up your life to God so that God would live through you. Now what’s left unanswered for us is: why? And furthermore, how does this prepare us to overcome the evil one?

Revelation 12:11 “They overcame him by the blood of the Lamb and by the word of their testimony; they did not love their lives so much as to shrink from death.”) In this respect we are meant to be exactly as God—perfect in love—the same standard that applies to God applies to us and this is the measure that displays the reality that we are partakers of the divine nature.

By this it is abundantly clear that the “new” covenant is not simply the “old” covenant rehashed. It has the elements of a totally different standard, the same standard for God and man.

Yes, Jesus was giving an explanation that was there always but people did not see because of the pharisee, Jesus called them hypocrite for a reason.

Mat 23:1 Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples,
Mat 23:2 Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat:
Mat 23:3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.
Mat 23:4 For they bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men's shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers.
Mat 23:5 But all their works they do for to be seen of men: they make broad their phylacteries, and enlarge the borders of their garments,
Mat 23:6 And love the uppermost rooms at feasts, and the chief seats in the synagogues,
Mat 23:7 And greetings in the markets, and to be called of men, Rabbi, Rabbi.
Mat 23:8 But be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your Master, evenChrist; and all ye are brethren.
Mat 23:9 And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven.
Mat 23:10 Neither be ye called masters: for one is your Master,even Christ.

The commandments are issued from GOD's perfect LOVE and this is what is needed to comprehend the law. it is why David mediated on the law and wrote:

Psa 19:7 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.
Psa 19:8 The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicin the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes.
Psa 19:9 The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring for ever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether.
Psa 19:10 More to be desired are they than gold, yea, than much fine gold: sweeter also than honey and the honeycomb.
Psa 19:11 Moreover by them is thy servant warned: and in keeping of them there is great reward.
Psa 19:12 Who can understand his errors? cleanse thou me from secret faults.
Psa 19:13 Keep back thy servant also from presumptuous sins;let them not have dominion over me: then shall I be upright, and I shall be innocent from the great transgression.
Psa 19:14 Let the words of my mouth, and the meditation of my heart, be acceptable in thy sight, O LORD, my strength, and my redeemer.

Blessings.

I agree with what you have said. My question is: was all that Jesus shared new, some new and old, or all that the law always entailed?
And thanks for contributing.

Some of what Jesus said certainly was new. Jesus explained the intent of the Law and how God saw sin. The best example of this is adultery. If someone engaged in the act of adultery, they were sinning under the law. However, God sees not just the outward but the heart. If a man secretly lusts after a woman, he has in effect committed adultery. The self righteous Pharisees delighted in demonstrating how good they were. Lord Jesus revealed that outward conformity was no longer enough. Who knew that the Sabbath was made for man? Some denominations consider the Sabbath to be only for God, not understanding God's intent.

When the Holy Spirit teaches a person, the veil of Moses is removed.

In Matthew 5:21-48 Jesus on five occasions says that His hearers have heard the law spoken and then goes on to give explanation of its meaning. In doing so is He expanding the meaning of the law or merely giving the understanding that was engendered in the law all along?

He is saying the law was adequate for the Jews but not for His church, His kingdom. We receive the Spirit who wrote the law on stone tablets. We have the Spirit of the law.

Thanks for sharing. But why didn't they also have the spiritual understanding? When Jesus spoke with Nicodemus concerning the spiritual birth he commented that he was a ruler of Israel and knew not these things. The implication is that he should have understood.