The Error of KJV-Onlyism

If you only could take away one thing from scripture, what would it be?

The assurance of salvation or your belief that only KJ's readers have the actual Bible?

I told you already here back in my previous post to you.

No, it isn't. It's a simple metaphor, which I have explained. You have either ignored or rejected the plain sense and made up a fantasy.

1 Help, Lord; for the godly man ceaseth; for the faithful fail from among the children of men.

The subject of this verse is "the godly man" and "the faithful".

2 They speak vanity every one with his neighbour: with flattering lips and with a double heart do they speak.

The "they" here implies everyone else; the godless.

3 The Lord shall cut off all flattering lips, and the tongue that speaketh proud things:

4 Who have said, With our tongue will we prevail; our lips are our own: who is lord over us?

The godless have said such things.

5 For the oppression of the poor, for the sighing of the needy, now will I arise, saith the Lord; I will set him in safety from him that puffeth at him.

The first and last "him" here refer to "the poor" and "the needy". What will the Lord do? Set them in safety from the godless.

6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.

God just spoke in verse 5. This verse tells us the certainty of His words (words, specific, not word, general).

7 Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

The "them" here is a clear reference back to "the poor" and "the needy" from verse 5, whom the Lord will "set in safety". God will certainly preserve "the poor" and "the needy" from "this [godless] generation forever."

8 The wicked walk on every side, when the vilest men are exalted.

This verse is a summary on the state of things; odd to our modern English ears, but not uncommon in the Psalms.


If we claim that the "them" of verse 7 refers to 'the words of the Lord', the whole Psalm is disjointed as verses 6 and 7 are out of context. If it refers to "the poor" and "the needy", the whole Psalm makes sense. The Lord spoke in verse 5; verse 6 reinforces the certainty of His words, and verse 7 gives their application. Simple, plain, logical, and specific.

Any relationship that God has with fallen man is a relationship with to a harlot. The whole book is a love story about a man who enters into a relationship with someone who is unworthy to be in relationship with him. Despite having taken her away from the degradation of her past life and offering a life of peace and joy, she returns to her former ways. Because of his great love for her, he humbles himself and pays all that is necessary to get her back.
This is a picture of what God has done in relationship to mankind; first with Israel, and now with all mankind. Since it is an OT story, it is indicative first of Israel, and secondarily, of all mankind.
The scripture is the book itself. It is actual history. But it is also an allegory relating primarily God's relationship with Israel. I can't make you accept this, but it's the correct understanding.
What do you think God is teaching through the book?

So how can we trust these translators? They, being the best of the best, the world's most intelligent and diligent translators EVER......Missed it, and it took Bible_Highlighter to show us their ignorance and blindness?

This is being PLAIN SILLY. Deal with the facts, and if you are on the wrong track, honestly admit it to yourself, and get on the right track. The translators -- UNLIKE YOU -- were neither ignorant nor blind.

You have seen enough about the excellency of the King James Bible to know that it is indeed excellent. But if you reject if after all that has been said. you are the one at fault, and God will hold you accountable for ignoring the truth and listening to the lies.

Um, you missed his point.

You, my friend, know all. You need no further teaching.

By a long shot!

This response shows a lack of willingness to repent on your part, and I certainly would not have you teach anyone, including myself. Your correct response to my post would have been "You are right. I need to change my attitude to the KJB."

No. That's not what you would like. This is what you need......." YOU are right."

THIS is excellent. This should make one pause.

I gave you Scripture. Do you reject those Scripture verses?

This is still not a Scripture verse or passage. Please try again.

The venerated KJV translators must have rejected them......Having missed this very important truth that you caught for them.

False doctrine can lead one astray. This is what the Modern Bibles teach in certain places. Plus, the Bible is a big book. If it was only about how to “get saved” or to be initially saved, it would be a lot smaller.

KJVonly And loss of salvation? You should talk that out with the other KJVonly folks.

The prophecy of Psalms 12:6 was not complete in their time to see it. I also gave you examples in Scripture of men of God not having certain knowledge from God. Take for example the two disciples on the road to Emmaus (Luke 24:13-35). Read this story in the Bible and then get back to me.

I am not even KJV Only. I am also not saying that one cannot be initially saved by a Modern Translation, either. I am also not saying that this would be a salvation issue in every case, either. Not everyone speaks English.